Finals MCQs-Apr 2007

From Anaesthesia_MCQ
Jump to: navigation, search

Finals Black Bank | Finals Debrief -April 2007 | July 2006 Finals MCQs | July 2007 Final MCQs

Contents

Finals MCQ Papers

Aug15 | Mar15 | Aug14 | Mar14 | Aug13 | Mar13 | Aug12 | Mar12 | Sep11 | Mar11 | Aug10 | Mar10 | Aug09 | Apr09 Aug08 | Apr08 | Jul07 | Mar07 | Jul06


MCQs

Status: 143/150 MCQs

Anaesthesia

AB: Anaphylaxis

AA16 [2001-Aug] Q65, [2002-Mar] Q59, [Apr07] Q63

FALSE statements regarding natural rubber latex allergy include

A. sensitivity of skin prick testing is greater than that of specific IgE antibody detection (RAST)

B. signs of Type I hypersensitivity are usually immediate

C. latex antibodies fall in time in a latex free environment

D. the risk factors of frequent exposure and atopy are additive

E. theatre latex aerogens are lowest in the morning


AB: Blood & Blood Products

AB11 [Jul06] [Apr07]

All the following are in cryoprecipitate EXCEPT

A. factor 8

B. factor 9

C. factor 13

D. VWF

E. fibrinogen


AB51 [Jul06] [Apr07]

Patient (age 60s) having a total knee replacement; on antihypertensives incl. an ACE Inhibitor. You have started a blood transfusion via a leukocyte-depleting filter in PACU after rapid loss into drains. What complication occurs with THIS filter in THIS situation?

A. Air embolism
B. Haemolysis
C. Increased risk of postoperative infection
D. Consumption of coagulation factors
E. severe hypotension


AB53 [Jul06] [Apr07] Blood contaminated with Yersinia enterocolitis was transfused. Time taken for symptoms to develop

A. within 1 hours
B. within 6 hours
C. within 12 hours
D. within 24 hour
E. within one week


AB55 [Apr07] Q124 TRALI after administration of blood products occurs

A. immediately
B. within 4 hours
C. within 8 hours
D. within 24 hours
E. within 48 hours


AB56 [Apr07] Most commonly reported cause of death from blood transfusion (didn't specify country)

A. TRALI
B. GVHD
C. incompatibility
D. anaphylaxis
E. bacterial


AB57 [Apr07] Q140 In a patient requiring FFP where the patient’s blood group is unknown, it is ideal to give FFP of group

A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
E. Blood group of FFP in this situation does not matter


AC: Complications

AC18b [Jul98] [Apr99] [2002-Aug] Q68, [2004-Apr] Q85 [2004-Aug] Q98, [Jul06] [Apr07]

When providing general anaesthesia to a patient with a history of asthma

A. thiopentone should not be used as it may cause bronchospasm
B. intravenous and topical tracheal lignocaine are equally effective in preventing bronchial hyperreactivity
C. ketamine provides little benefit in a patient with active wheezing
D. induction with propofol is effective in reducing the incidence of wheezing following intubation
E. isoflurane is as effective a bronchodilator as halothane when given in MAC equivalent doses


AC22e [Jul06] [Apr07] All of the following are likely consequences of postoperative hypothermia in an elderly patient except

A. hypercoagulability
B.
C. increased catacholamine levels
D. ?
E. shivering


AC62 [2001-Aug] Q90, [Jul06] [Apr07] The most commonly reported cause of awareness during general anaesthesia for a non-obstetric procedure is

A. inadequate intra-operative opiate analgesia
B. equipment failure
C. the use of total intravenous anaesthesia
D. faulty anaesthetic technique
E. use of a laryngeal mask airway


AC93 [Apr99] [Jul00] [2001-Apr] Q8, [2002-Aug] Q10, [2003-Aug] Q55, [2004-Apr] Q59, [Apr07] Q55

The most important factor in reducing peri-operative morbidity in diabetic patients undergoing peripheral vascular surgery is

A. tight control of blood sugar level in the peri-operative period

B. frequent blood sugar level estimations

C. use of regional rather than general anaesthesia

D. stabilisation of co-existing disease

E. the use of an insulin infusion rather than a subcutaneous sliding scale regimen


AC108 [Jul00] [2001-Aug] Q60, [2003-Aug] Q135 & [2004-Apr] Q86, [Apr07]

A healthy 20 year old patient undergoing nasal surgery under general anaesthesia has the nose packed with gauze soaked in 0.5% phenylephrine and a submucosal injection of lignocaine with 1:100,000 adrenaline. Over the next 10 minutes the blood pressure rises from 130/80 to 220/120 mmHg and the heart rate from 60 to 100 beats per minute. The LEAST appropriate management of this situation would be to

A. administer glyceryl trinitrate
B. administer esmolol
C. administer labetalol
D. administer sodium nitroprusside
E. deepen anaesthesia with isoflurane


AC132 [2004-Aug] Q136, [Jul06] [Apr07]

During surgery for tracheostomy insertion surgical diathermy is being used at the tracheal incision. You are ventilating with 100% oxygen. As the trachea is opened you notice a blue flame shooting up from the incision. Your first action should be to

A. disconnect the breathing circuit from the endotracheal tube
B. douse the wound with saline
C. insert a tracheostomy tube
D. remove the endotracheal tube
E. turn off oxygen and ventilate with air


AC135b [Apr07] Appropriate actions prior to central neuraxial block include all the following EXCEPT

A. Use of alcohol based prep applied at least twice
B. Use of alcohol based prep which is allowed to dry
C. Full "Surgical Scrub" before applying gown and gloves
D. Have assistant disinfect glass ampuole prior to opening
E. Wear a NEW face mask


AC151 [Jul06] [Apr07] Which of the following contributes the LEAST to motor neuropathy following the lithotomy position?

A. Smoking
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Age
D. BMI >25
E. Peripheral vascular disease


AC152 [Apr07] Regarding epidural Abcess - which is WRONG

A. Diagnosis is DEPENDENT on triad of back pain, fever, and paralysis
B. Occurs at a rate of 1:1000-3000 (OR 1:2000 - 1:5000)
C. Worse outcomes if advanced age
D. Usually gram positive cocci
E. Expectant management may be appropriate


AC154 [Apr07] Q128 In modern anaesthetic practice, mortality from myocardial infarction after non cardiac surgery is

A. 2.5-5%
B. 5-10%
C. 10-15%
D. 20-30%
E. approximately 50%


AC155 [Apr07]

A patient with severe COPD on home oxygen is having an excision of a submandibular tumour under local anaesthesia. The best way to prevent fire in the operating room is:

A. seal the surgical site from the patients airway with adhesive drapes

B. use bipolar instead of monopolar diathermy

C. decr FIO2 to maintain sats 97%

D. use alcoholic chlorhex instead of iodine

E. add nitrous oxide to the inhaled gases to reduce the FiO2 and provide sedation


AM: Muscle Disorders

AM09c [2004-Aug] Q94, [Jul06] [Apr07]

In the Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A. there is a familial incidence
B. non depolarizing muscle relaxants decrease the muscle rigidity
C. creatinine kinase levels are elevated following an episode
D. there is an association with malignant hyperpyrexia
E. hyperthermia does not always occur


AM28c [Mar06] [Jul06] [Apr07] Q136

In a patient with myasthenia gravis undergoing a laparotomy for large bowel obstruction, the need for post-operative ventilation is significantly increased by a

A. High daily doses of pyridostigmine
B. Long history of the disease
C. Previous exaggerated response to NMDBs
D. Previous crisis requiring ventilation
E. Bulbar palsy


AP: Pain Medicine

AP18b [Jul05] [Apr07] Which will not reduce pain in elderly man with acute herpes zoster?

A. topical aspirin
B. corticosteroids
C. carbamazepine
D. tricyclic antidepressants/amitriptyline
E. acyclovir


AP36 [Jul06] [Apr07] Analgesia options for phantom limb pain

A. calcitonin is not effective
B. gabapentin is effective
C. IV lignocaine is effective
D. ketamine can lead to a long term reduction in pain
E. opioids are not effective


AP39 [Apr07] Which of the following strategies reduces the incidence of severe phantom limb pain?

A. NSAIDS
B. Ketamine perioperatively
C. Regional nerve catheter with local anaesthetic
D. morphine PCA
E. intravenous lignocaine


AP40 [Apr07] Compared to IM or subcut injections, PCA with opioids has:

A. equal favour by patients
B. better analgesia
C. reduced opioid side effects
D. reduced length of stay
E. reduced opioid requirements


AP41 [Apr07] Q137

Patient with amputation/ neuropathic pain. On oxycontin 40mg bd, paracetamol 1g qid. Also on omeprazole 20mg. You want to start him on gabapentin, before deciding on dose you will:

A. Check LFT

B. Check renal function

C. Check QT interval

D. Cease omeprazole

E. Decrease oxycontin dose

AT: Cardiothoracic

AT20 [Jul06] [Apr07] Q73

All of the following are major complications of mediastinoscopy EXCEPT:

A. Compression of the great vessels

B. Air embolism

C. Pneumothorax

D. Major haemorrhage

E. Phrenic nerve damage


AT26 [Jul06] [Apr07]

During one lung ventilation, ventilation can cause damage when sustained plateau pressures are greater than

A. 20 cmH2o

B. 30 cmH2O

C. 40 cmH20

D. 50 cmH20

E. no relation to pressure


AT27 [Apr07] Q108

Following a left sided pneumonectomy, a left intercostals drain is placed and connected to an underwater drainage system. In the postoperative period

A. A leakage of air is expected from the drain

B. The patient should be nursed in the right lateral decubitus position

C. The underwater seal drain should be left on continuous free drainage

D. The underwater seal drain should be left on continuous free drainage and connected to wall suction for 5 minutes every hour

E. The underwater seal drain should remained clamped and be released for a short period every hour


AZ: Miscellaneous

AZ56 [Jul98] [2001-Apr] Q53, [2001-Aug] Q40, [2002-Aug] Q32, [2003-Aug] Q67, [2005-Apr] Q72, [Jul05] [Apr07] Q67

A patient with severe liver disease is scheduled to have a portacaval shunt for portal hypertension. Recommended features of the anaesthetic management include

A. use of vecuronium as the relaxant of choice

B. care with the dose of suxamethonium because it may have a prolonged effect

C. avoidance of fentanyl as an analgesic

D. avoidance of all volatile anaesthetic agents including isoflurane

E. reduction of the induction dose of thiopentone


AZ63 [2002-Aug] Q123, [Mar06] [Apr07] Q10

Regarding extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL) for renal calculi in patients with a permanent pacemaker in situ,

A. ESWL is contraindicated

B. ESWL pulses should be timed to coincide with the ST interval

C. rate modulation of the pacemaker should be deactivated during the ESWL procedure

D. there is a risk that the ESWL pulse will reprogramme the pacemaker

E. regional anaesthesia is relatively contraindicated


AZ67 [2003-Apr] Q90, [Jul06] [Apr07]

The primary duty of an expert witness called by the defence is to the

A. Court
B. Defence Counsel
C. defendent doctor
D. medical profession
E. patient taking legal action


AZ69b [2003-Aug] Q129, [2004-Apr] Q77, [Apr07] Q129

During elective major vascular surgery the best way to reduce the risk of acute renal failure is to maintain a normal

A. central venous pressure
B. mean arterial blood pressure
C. renal blood flow
D. systemic vascular resistance
E. urine output


AZ82 [Apr07] In the elderly:

A. shivering may be less effective at combatting hypothermia compared to young adults

B. sevoflurane uptake is essentially the same due to the low blood:gas solubility

C. sedation with regional anaesthesia does not remove the lower risk of POCD (except it had a double negative, something like 'does not negate the effect of of')

D.

E.


AZ83 [Apr07] Patient having THR; BP normal; under GA with sevo/N2O/fentanyl, immediately before surgeon cementing, best thing to do:

A. Induce hypotension

B. Raise BP with vasopressors

C. Turn off nitrous

D. Give steroids

E. Give heparin 5000u


Equipment

EC: Clinical Measurement

EC17 [Apr07] Q139

You have anaesthetised a patient with a partially obstructing right main bronchus tumour. You are using Heliox (28% O2:72% HE. and sevoflurane. You secure the airway with an endotracheal tube and continue with the same gas mixture. After 20 minutes the ETCO2 is 28mmHg. The capnogram waveform is normal. This probably means the patient is

A. Appropriately ventilated with a low cardiac output

B. Appropriately ventilated with a normal cardiac output

C. Hypothermic (34C)

D. Hyperventilating

E. Hypoventilating


EM: Monitoring

EM35c [Jul06] [Apr07]

TOE (trans-oesophageal echo): Picture of transgastric midpapillary short axis view arrow pointing to lump at the back. Is this the:

A. posterolateral papillary muscle
B. posteromedial papillary muscle
C. anterolaterlal papillary muscle
D. mitral valve outflow

(note there was a handy key to the left of the image to show anterior vs inferior, left vs right)


EM37 [Apr96] [Aug96] [Apr97] [2001-Aug] Q57, [2002-Mar] Q52, [Jul06] [Apr07]

Systemic vascular resistance index (SVRI) is calculated from

A. systemic vascular resistance multiplied by body surface area
B. systemic vascular resistance divided by body surface area
C. mean aortic and central venous pressure difference divided by cardiac output
D. cardiac index divided by the mean aortic and central venous pressure difference
E. none of the above


EM46 [Jul98] [2002-Aug] Q121, [Jul05] [Jul06] [Apr07] Q4

The risk of complications with insertion of a Swan-Ganz catheter is increased in all of the following EXCEPT

A. Coagulopathy
B. left bundle branch block
C. prosthetic right heart valve
D. recently inserted endocardial pacemaker leads
E. aortic stenosis

?option with RBBB


EM61 [Jul06] [Apr07] Which statement about the use of Entropy depth of anaesthetic monitoring is true?

A. artefacts caused by cardiac pacemaker produce a high RE (Response Entropy) value
B. RE only assesses the EEG (electroencephalogram) range from 32-47Hz (high frequency)
C. SE (State Entropy) values range from 0 – 100
D. SE is a stable indicator of the effects of hypnotics on the cortex
E. the RE algorithm filters the EMG (electromyogram) component


EM63 [Apr07] Which capnograph suggests a tension capnothorax during laparoscopic fundoplication?

A. increasing baseline but otherwise normal
B. rebreathing with increasing baseline
C. change in shape of capnograph with decreasing height and became triangular shaped ie progessively more upsloping phase 3 but falling peak
D. ?
E. slowly rising baseline with normal expiration but slow flattened inspiration


EM64 [Apr07]

Oxygen cannot be measured by:

A. fuel cell

B. mass spectrometry

C. infra-red spectrophotometry

D. Paramagnetic analysis

E. Raman scattering


EZ: Miscellaneous

EZ72 [2004-Apr] Q147, [Jul06] [Apr07]

Output of a diathermy machine does NOT cause patient electrocution because the

A. current is too low

B. current travels on the surface of the body

C. frequency is too high

D. return electrode is never placed between the heart and the operation site

E. voltage is too low


EZ82 [Jul06] [Apr07] Using a Proseal LMA, properly fitted, what pressure can you ventilate to before leak occurs?

A. 10cmH20
B. 20cmH2O
C. 30cmH2O
D. 40cmH2O
E. 50cmH20


EZ84 [Apr07] You are performing a Level 2 check on the anaesthetic machine. The suction bulb at the common gas outlet does not stay compressed after 10 seconds. The cause of this could be:

A. leak in CO2 absorber
B. loosely seated vaporiser
C. leak in pipeline O2
D. leak in cylinder attachment to anaesthetic machine
E. malfunction in one of the valves of the ventilator circuit


EZ85 [Apr07] In a bobbin rotameter system: (similar to EZ16)

A. The pressure drop is the same across the bobbin at different flow rates

B. The pressure drop across the bobbin is higher at higher flow rates

C. Flow is laminar at higher velocities

D. The sides ot he the tubes are parallel

E.


EZ86 [Apr07] Q136

Adult male who is intubated and ventilated, with CVL in situ. Just before surgeon starts the Line Isolation Monitor alarms about a leak at (?) 5mA. What do you do?

A. stop procedure and move to a safe location

B. sequentially remove non essential monitors from the circuit until fault is identified

C. unplug the CVL to electrically isolate it until fault is identified

D. ensure the patient is earthed

E. Check the diathermy pad


Medicine

MC: Cardiology

MC19b [Jul06] [Apr07] Man with chest pain and a tall R wave in V1?

A. LAD occlusion

B. Lateral MI

C. Cx occlusion

D. Posterior MI

E. Pulmonary Infarction


MC55 [Aug93] [Mar94] [Aug94] [Jul97] [Jul98] [Aug99] [2001-Apr] Q45, [2001-Aug] Q34, [2004-Apr] Q33, [2004-Aug] Q7, [Apr07] Q9

The J-point of the ECG waveform is altered by all of the following EXCEPT

A. hypothermia

B. tachycardia

C. myocardial ischaemia

D. calcium channel blockers

E. digoxin


MC139 [Jul06] [Apr07]

Radiology for diagnosis of pulmonary embolus - most likely to be PE if

A. filling defects on angiography

B.low PaO2 result +perfusion scan result

C. ?


MC141 [Apr07]

Atrial fibrillation:

A. rhythm control not proven to be better then rate control

B. only need warfarin if have other risk factors for cva

C. asprin is as good as warfarin for CVA protection in elderly

D. after cardioversion patient should be placed on rhythm control therapy

E. digoxin is the drug of choice for rate control in exercise


MC149 [Apr07]

Reverse splitting of the second heart sound occurs with:

A. LBBB

B. Pulmonary hypertension

C. Acute pulmonary embolus

D. ASD

E. severe MR


MC146 [Apr07]

In regards to the perioperative diagnosis of myocardial infarction:

A. ECHO has no role

B. Troponin is sensitive and remains elevated for 5 days after the event

C. The CK rise is indicative of the amount of muscle bulk involved....not sure if that was quite the right wording

D.

E.


MC151 [Apr07]

All of the following prolong the QT interval except

A. Increased airway pressures

B. Suxamethonium

C. Magnesium

D. Volatile anaesthetics

E. Thiopentone

ME: Endocrinology

ME35 [Mar93] [Jul06] [Apr07]

A patient has a history of polyuria, elevated serum calcium, normal parathyroid hormone and a raised ACE level, what is most likely diagnosis?

A. Milk-alkali syndrome

B. Primary hyperparathyroidism

C. Malignancy

D. Multiple myeloma

E. Sarcoidosis


ME42 [2004-Aug] Q148, [2005-Apr] Q66, [Apr07]

Anorexia nervosa is associated with all except:

A. dental caries

B. increased gastric emptyping decreased

C. mitral valve prolapse

D. sinus bradycardia

E. superficial parotitis


ME43 [Apr07]

Addison's disease lab features: Which is NOT correct:

A. Ca 2.50 mmol/L

B. BSL 12.0 mmol/L

C. Na 128 mmol/L

D. K 6.1 mmol/L

E. Urea 15mmol/L


ME44 [Apr07]

A patient on 10mg prednisolone per day for 12 months comes in and has an uncomplicated R hemicolectomy. Your perioperative management of his steroids until he resumes normal intake is:

A. Hydrocortisone 100mg for 24 hours

B. Hydrocortisone 200mg per day for approx 72 hours

C. Hydrocortisone 400mg per day for 72 hrs

D. No steroids

E. 20mg nasogastric prednisolone daily


MG: Gastroenterology

MG01b [1986] [1987] [1988] [Mar90] [Sep90] [Mar95] [Jul98] [Apr99] [2005-Apr] Q87, [Apr07]

A known alcoholic with anorexia and nausea has become jaundiced. His urine is dark and his faeces pale. He has discomfort in the right hypochondrium. The AST (SGOT) is 2000 IU.l-l, the alkaline phosphatase 100 IU.l-I and the serum bilirubin is 75 micromol.1-l. The best treatment would be

A. withdrawal of alcohol

B. expectant

C. operation to remove obstruction (gallstones tumour)

D. urgent liver biopsy

E. endoscopy


MG12 [Jul06] [Apr07]

The most important aspect of anaesthetising a patient with Gilbert's syndrome is

A. Recognition of the cause of abnormal biochemical result

B. Avoid fasting

C. Use hepatorenal syndrome prophylaxis

D. Use FFP pre operatively

E. Avoid stress


MH: Haematology

MH40 [Jul00] [Apr07]

With regards to HIV:

A. CD4 count commonly 200-400 is usual

B. Cardiomyopathy is a recognised feature

C. Toxoplasmosis infection is a common initial presentation

D. Contraindication to epidural blood patch

E. Regional anaesthesia should not be used


MH54 [Apr07] von Willebrands type 1:

A. Variable increase in bleeding time

B. Increased aPTT

C. Increased PT

D. Haemarthroses

E. Delayed bleeding after trauma


MZ: Metabolic

MM18 [Jul06] [Apr07] All of the following as seen in serotonin syndrome EXCEPT

A. Sweating
B. Miosis
C. Tachycardia
D. Tremor
E. Clonus


MM20 [2004-Apr] Q135, [Apr07] Q52

Carcinoid syndrome may present as:

A. SVT

B. Mitral regurgitation

C. Hypoglycaemia

D. Renal failure

E. Splenomegaly


MR: Respiratory medicine

MR45 [2003-Aug] Q99, [Jul05] [Apr07] Q99

In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the variable most closely associated with prognosis is

A. arterial carbon dioxide partial pressure (PaC02)

B. arterial oxygen partial pressure (Pa02)

C. forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)

D. forced vital capacity (FVC)

E. response to bronchodilators


MR47 [Mar06] [Apr07]

Unequal (asymetrical) consolidation on a CXR can be caused by all except:

A. pulmonary oedema

B. pneumonia

C. pulmonary haemorrhage

D. pulmonary infarction

E. pulmonary effusion


MZ: Miscellaneous

MZ62 [2001-Apr] Q72, [2001-Aug] Q37, [2002-Aug] Q48, [2003-Apr] Q59, [2004-Aug] Q77, [2005-Apr] Q33, [Apr07]

Which of the following statements regarding the management of hypocalcaemia is INCORRECT?

A. Correcting a respiratory or metabolic alkalosis increases the level of ionised calcium

B. Calcium should be administered via a central vein as it is irritant to peripheral veins

C. Acidosis will decrease calcium binding to albumin and therefore increase ionised calcium

D. When calcium alone is NOT sufficient for control of hypocalcaemia, Vitamin D metabolites can be added

E. Calcium chloride has been shown to be superior to calcium gluconate


MZ48 [Apr97] [Jul97] [Apr98] [Aug99] [2004-Aug] Q127, [2005-Apr] Q71, [Jul05] [Apr07]

Patho-physiological features of patients with morbid obesity include

A. a blood volume:body weight ratio which is similar to that of patients with normal body weight

B. an increased blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance compared to that of patients with normal body weight

C. decreased gastric motility due to increased gastrin secretion

D. cardiac pathology resulting from excess body mass and increased metabolic demand

E. cardiac pathology resulting mainly from fatty infiltration or fatty change of the heart


MZ76 [Mar06] [Apr07]

Changes associated with chronic renal failure include:

A. increased Ca absorption

B. increased PO4 absorption

C. increased vit D3 production

D. increased osteoclastic activity

E. decreased osteoblastic activity


MZ77 [Apr07]

The following ABG’s are most likely due to:

  • pH 7.28
  • pCO2 36mmHg
  • HCO3- 18 mmol/L
  • Na 142 mmol/L
  • Cl 112 mmol/L

A. 6 L of normal saline administration

B. diabetic ketoacidosis

C. salicylate poisoning

D. acute renal failure

E. lactic acidosis



Surgery

SC: Cardiac Surgery

SC27 [Apr07]

Lumbar intrathecal catheter in Marfan's patient having thoracoabdominal aortic aneurysm repair for chronic dissection is for:

A. Drain CSF

B. Cool spinal cord

C. Administration of neuroprotective drugs

D. Monitoring

E. Administration of substrates.


SC30 [Apr07]

For a patient positioned for left lateral for posterolateral incision for thoracotomy

A. right brachial plexus is at risk if shoulder flexed > 90 degrees

B. radial nerve is most common injury

C. flex the non-dependant leg, and straighten the dependant leg

D. place axillary roll under chest to improve surgical exposure

E.


SC31 [Apr07] Q109

Relative contraindications to mediastinoscopy include

A. Cervical spondylosis

B. Emphysema

C. Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

D. Poor left ventricular function

E. Superior vena cava syndrome


SF: Obstetric & Gynaecology

SF55 [1988] [2002-Aug] Q105, [2003-Apr] Q69, [2004-Aug] Q88, [Jul05] [Apr07] Q141

In relation to obstetric haemorrhage

A. amniotic fluid embolism is unlikely to present as unexplained haemorrhage

B. coagulopathy is uncommon, when severe abruption leads to maternal shock and fetal death

C. the risk of placenta accreta, but NOT placenta praevia, increases with an increasing number of caesarean sections

D. treatment of uterine atony with prostaglandins is rarely associated with adverse maternal effects

E. intravenous magnesium may facilitate replacement of an inverted uterus


SF12 [1988] [1989] [Mar90] [Mar91] [Aug91] [Aug92] [Mar93] [Aug93] [Mar94] [Aug94] [2002-Mar] Q22, [2002-Aug] Q50, [2004-Aug] Q60, [2005-Apr] Q64, [Apr07]

Supine hypotension during late pregnancy is associated with

A. a rise in the systemic vascular resistance

B. a rise in the cardiopulmonary blood volume

C. increased heart rate

D. stable stroke volume

E. a rise in the cardiac index


SF73 [Jul06] Q145, [Apr07] Q145

Which drug is contraindicated in pregnant patient with heart failure/dilated cardiomyopathy?

A. ACE inhibitor

B. beta blocker

C. digoxin

D. loop diuretics

E. nitrates


SF72 [Jul06] Q147, [Apr07]

A pregnant woman is 36 weeks gestation and complains of progressive dyspnoea. The sign which would prompt you to further investigate would be

A. peripheral oedema

B. increased JVP

C. S3

D. ejection systolic murmur

E. orthopnea


SF71

According to best evidence in obstetric anaesthesia, what is incorrect:

A. Ephedrine >15mg causes more hypertension than prevention of hypotension when used prophylaxis for spinal block

B. Colloids better than crystalloids for prophylaxis spinal block (or: for preventing BP fall in regional anaesthesiA.

C. Epidurals in healthy nullips, not shown to increase LSCS rate versus IV opioids

D. Fentanyl in spinal doesn't change rate of PONV (compared to bupivacaine alonE.

E. The rate of LSCS- no difference in healthy primips with epi vs iv opioids (definitely IV not parenteral).

F. increases uterine perfusion (don't remember this version)


SF84 [Apr07] Q112

Analgesic requirements during labour are reduced by each of the following except

A. Acupressure

B. Acupuncture

C. Hypnosis

D. One to one support by midwife

E. TENS


SG: General Surgery

SG33e [2003-Aug] Q109, [2004-Aug] Q33, [Jul05] [Apr07] Q12

The most effective method of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis for a fifty-year-old woman presenting for anterior resection for cancer of the colon would be

A. electrical calf stimulation

B. Dextran 70 infusion

C. graduated compression stockings

D. intermittent pneumatic leg compression

E. low dose heparin (5000 units bd)


SG51 [Apr07]

Laparotomy and hemicolectomy, the least effective way to minimize post op surgical infection

A. Aggressive perioperative fluid management

B. Timely administration of prophylactic antibiotics

C. Perioperative hyperoxia

D. Avoidance of hypothermia

E. Avoidance of blood transfusion


SG52 [Apr07] Q98

Post liver resection, the time when prothrombin time derangement is maximal is:

A. day 1-2

B. day 3-4

C. day 4-5

D. day 6-7

E. unpredictable time after surgery


SG55 [Jul05] [Jul06] [Apr07]

High phosphate bowel preparation is contraindicated in frail elderly patient because:

A. increased abdo pain, nausea, bloating

B. hypokalaemia

C. hypernatraemia

D. hypomagnesaemia

E. increased risk of large fluid shifts


SG59 [Apr07]

Blunt liver trauma can be treated non surgically if

A. No peritoneal signs

B. Low Grade injury on CT scan

C. Severe COPD

D. Haemodynamically stable

E. US confirms <500mls peritoneal fluid collection (i thought this was a paracentesis result)


SN: Neurosurgery

SN13 Jul06 [Apr07]

Intraoperative Hypothermia for Aneurysm Surgery Trial (IHAST): trial (hypothermia for aneurysm surgery) showed that

A. not beneficial to cool to 33 degrees if World Federation Neurosurgical Societies (WSNF) grade I-III

B. not beneficial to cool to 33 degrees if WSNF grade IV-V

C. beneficial to cool to 33 degrees if WSNF grade I-II

D. beneficial to cool to 33 degrees if WSNF grade III

E. beneficial to cool to 33 degrees if WSNF grade IV-V


SN15 [Apr07]

With regards vasospasm in SAH, which is false:

A. Vasospasm proven on angiogram will be decreased 30-40% with nimodipine

B. HHH therapy is mainstay for treatment and prophylaxis

C. Transcranial doppler can be used serially to detect vasospasm

D. ?

E. vasospasm peaks at day 7-10


SN16 [Apr07]

Post grade II SAH in 50yo woman who has just returned from successful endoluminal coiling, best thing to include in subsequent Mx to prevent vasospasm would be

A. at least 3 L of IV normal saline per day

B. iv or oral magnesium supplementation

C. maintain systolic blood pressure above > 160mmHg

D. Keep intubated and ventilate for 24 hours before desedating

E. ??cool to 33 degrees


SN17 [Apr07]

A patient is having posterior fossa surgery in the sitting position. Which of the following changes would make you suspect a venous air embolism:

A. dec PAP, dec ETCO2, inc PaCO2, dec CVP

B. ↑PAP, ↓ETCO2, PaCO2, CVP

C. ↓PAP, ↑ETCO2, PaCO2, CVP

D. ↑PAP, inc ETCO2, PaCO2, CVP

E. inc PAP, dec ETCO2, inc PaCO2, inc CVP


SO: Orthopaedic Surgery

SO18 [Jul06] [Apr07]

Normally well 20 year old having ORIF fractured tibia. Tourniquet has been applied appropriately and seems to be inflated to 250mmHg. BP = 110/70mmHg. Ongoing small amount of bleeding from surgical site. What do you do?

A. accept that tourniquets don't prevent all bleeding

B. check coagulation status

C. deflate tourniquet then reexsanguinate and reinflate cuff

D. crank up tourniquet pressure

E. reduce blood pressure


SO19 [Apr07] Q119

A well 65 year old is having a THR under general anaesthesia with sevo/N2O/fentanyl. BP is 130/70. Before the surgeon commences reaming and cementing, the best thing to do is:

A. Induce hypotension

B. Raise BP with vasopressors

C. Turn off nitrous

D. Give steroids

E. Give heparin 5000u


SZ: Miscellaneous Surgery

SZ10 [2002-Aug] Q84, [2003-Apr] Q47, [Jul05] [Apr07] Q11

The absorption of fluid into the circulation during transurethral prostatectomy (TURP) is NOT related to

A. prostate size

B. height of the irrigation fluid bag

C. duration of surgery

D. surgical technique

E. type of irrigation fluid


SZ14 [2004-Apr] Q103, [2004-Aug] Q81, [Apr07]

In the recovery room, following general anaesthesia for renal transplant surgery, your patient is found to have a serum potassium concentration of 6 mmol.l-1, despite having a normal potassium concentration pre-operatively. His oxygen saturation is 96% on approximately 40% oxygen via a Hudson mask. He is still unconscious, but breathing spontaneously at 8 breaths per minute. The most likely cause of his hyperkalaemia is

A. beta-blockers which he received peri-operatively

B. catabolic stress of surgery

C. opioid induced narcosis causing carbon dioxide retention

D. renal graft failure

E. washed red blood cell transfusion, which he received intraoperatively


SZ18 [2004-Aug] Q147, [2005-Apr] Q76, [Mar06] [Apr07]

The physiological change most likely to be associated with infrarenal cross-clamping of the aorta is

A. decreased coronary blood flow

B. decreased renal blood flow

C. increased cardiac output

D. increased heart rate

E. reduction in myocardial wall motion abnormalities


SZ20 [2004-Aug] Q100, [2005-Apr] Q84, [Apr07]

In a patient with an intra-orbital haemorrhage, following local anaesthetic injection, the adequacy of ocular perfusion is best assessed by

A. angiography

B. direct ophthalmoscopy

C. indirect ophthalmoscopy

D. intra-ocular pressure tonometry

E. palpation of the globe by an experienced clinician


SZ25 [Apr07]

A patient comes back to theatre for control of bleeding post tonsillectomy. The most important aspect of his management is:

A. avoidance of premedication

B. avoidance of volatile anaesthesia

C. duplicate suctioning device and ETT’s available

D.

E. RSI


SZ26 [Apr07]

A 40 pack year smoker complains of progressive dyspnoea. He has had stridor for the last 3 weeks, worsening in the last week. He is awoken at night with breathlessness. In the emergency department he has moderate stridor is sitting upright and has saturations of 95%. Your next step in management is:

A. Awake fibreoptic

B. CT neck

C. Nasendoscopy with topical anaesthesia

D. Assessment after gaseous anaesthetic induction

E. Tracheostomy under local anaesthesia


Regional Anaesthesia

RH17 [Mar93] [Apr07]

Block of the maxillary nerve in the pterygopalatine fossa causes ipsilateral analgesia of:

A. Upper molar teeth

B. Upper incisor teeth

C. Hard palate

D. The posterior part of the lateral wall of the nose

E. Nasal septum


RH23 [2001-Aug] Q12, [2002-Mar] Q30, [2003-Aug] Q29, [2005-Apr] Q44, [Apr07] Q29

Advantages of local anaesthesia for middle ear surgery compared with general anaesthesia do NOT include

A. avoidance of problems with middle ear pressure

B. a drier surgical field

C. ability to monitor facial nerve integrity

D. ability to monitor hearing

E. substantial reduction in post-operative nausea and vomiting


RH31 [Apr07] Q70

In performing a retrobulbar block, the complication of brainstem anaesthesia:

A. Is not associated with contralateral amaurosis

B. Has an incidence of approximately 1 in 2000 blocks

C. Becomes clinically apparent within 2 to 15 minutes

D. Usually takes 4 to 6 hours to resolve

E. Is associated with increased auditory acuity


RL11 [Apr07]

A patient requires forefoot amputation. You wish to block the most peripheral nerves to give complete anaesthesia for the procedure. Best nerves to be blocked include:

A. Medial and lateral plantar

B. common peroneal and tibial

C. sciatic and saphenous

D. sural and sciatic

E. deep peroneal and superficial peroneal


Anatomy

NH14 [1985] [Mar93] [Mar94] [Aug96] [Apr99] [2004-Aug] Q24, [2005-Apr] Q48, [Jul06] [Apr07]

Sensation from the lobule of the external ear is mediated mostly by

A. the auriculo-temporal nerve

B. the great auricular nerve

C. the lesser occipital nerve

D. the greater occipital nerve

E. none of the above


NH20b [Aug91] [Jul06] [Apr07] Q7

The most direct branch of the internal carotid artery:

A. Ophthalmic artery

B. Choroidal artery

C. Anterior cerebral artery

D. Middle cerebral artery

E. Posterior cerebral artery


NN05b [2004-Aug] Q17, [2005-Apr] Q63, [Apr07]

The carotid sinus derives its nerve supply from the

A. vagus nerve

B. glossopharyngeal nerve

C. ansa cervicalis (hypoglossi)

D. middle cervical ganglion

E. stellate ganglion


NN13 [1986] [2004-Aug] Q29, [2005-Apr] Q75, [Apr07]

The innervation of the human larynx is such that

A. the internal laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal branch of the vagus supplies the lingual surface of the epiglottis

B. in the cadaveric position the cords are fully abducted

C. the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx

D. the glossopharyngeal nerves are sensory to the laryngeal mucous membrane above the level of the vocal cords

E. cord paralysis can be produced by a distended endotracheal cuff in the larynx compressing a branch of the recurrent laryngeal nerve against the thyroid cartilage


NN32 [Apr07]

Stellate ganglion is where:

A. at the level of the body of C6 (spine of C6)

B. posterior to the brachial plexus sheath

C. anterior to the dome of the pleura

D. anterior to the thoracic duct

E. anterior to scalenius anterior


NN33 [Apr07]

Picture of a view of laryngoscopy showing epiglottis, arytenoids and about 1/3 of the black hole of the trachea, asking for which Cormack-Lehane grade:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5


NV36d [2003-Aug] Q78, [2004-Apr] Q99, [2004-Aug] Q70, [Apr07] Q78

The best predictor of poor outcome for a peri-operative ulnar nerve injury is

A. a delay in symptom onset to more than 48 hours postoperatively

B. association with anaesthesia lasting more than 2 hours

C. association with a brachial plexus block

D. presence of bilateral injury

E. presence of mixed sensory and motor deficit


NV38b [2005-Apr] Q65 [Mar06] [Jul06] [Apr07]

The median nerve

A. can be blocked at the elbow immediately lateral to the brachial artery

B. can be blocked at the wrist between palmaris longus and flexor carpi ulnaris

C. can be blocked at the wrist medial to flexor carpi ulnaris

D. is formed from the lateral, medial, and posterior cords of the brachial plexus

E. provides sensation to the radial half of the palm


NV42 [Apr07]

What do C6/7 motor function do

A. flex/extension of fingers

B. flex /extend wrist

C. shoulder ext rotation / abduction

D. elbow pronation/supination

E. flexion at elbow


NV43 [Apr07]

At the wrist:

A. the median nerve lies between the flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus

B. the radial artery is medial to flexor carpi radialus

C. the ulnar artery and nerve enter the hand under the flexor retinaculum

D.

E.


NZ03 [2003-Aug] Q123, [2004-Apr] Q79, [Apr07] Q123

Pre-ganglionic sympathetic fibres pass to the

A. otic ganglion

B. carotid body

C. ciliary ganglion

D. coeliac ganglion

E. all of the above


Paediatrics

PP61b [2003-Aug] Q124, [Apr07] Q124

The peak effect of oral midazolam as a premedication in children occurs after

A. 10 -- 15 minutes

B. 20 - 30 minutes

C. 35 - 45 minutes

D. 50 - 60 minutes

E. 65 - 75 minutes


PP63 [2002-Aug] Q117, [2003-Apr] Q44, [2004-Aug] Q42, [Jul05] [Apr07] Q103

A six-week-old baby is booked for elective right inguinal hernia repair. The gestational age is 38 weeks. An appropriate fasting time is

A. 6 hours for breast and formula milk

B. 4 hours for solids

C. 2 hours for formula milk

D. 3 hours for breast milk

E. 6 hours for solids and 3 hours for all fluids


PP90 [Jul06] [Apr07] Q8

Child having multiple lower limb osteotomies. He has frequent painful muscle spasm and cerebral palsy. Best analgesia:

A. continuous epidural infusion with bupivacaine and clonidine (this option actually local anaesthetic and clonidine - different to previously remembered question)

B. regular NSAID plus tramadol

C. morphine PCA

D. paracetamol and oxycodone

E. spinal morphine


PP91 [Jul06] [Apr07] Q2

An 7-year old girl is having an aneasthetic. At laryngoscopy she is noted to have clear secretions around her larynx/in her pharynx. Afte the tube is placed, clear fluid is suctioned. There is a short period of wheeze on chest ausculatation. At the end of the case she is saturating at 96% on an FiO2 of 0.30. There is no wheeze. The best management for this child is: (the order wasn't exactly this but options are essentially correct)

A. give IV steroids, wait 1 hr and if stable extubate

B. pull the tube, place her on oxygen via a Hudson mask, and observe in recovery for 4-6 hrs

C. organise an on-table CXR, treat accordingly

D. order an urgent pH of the suctioned fluid and base further management on the result

E. extubate and treat with antibiotics


PP92 [Apr07]

5yo 35kg child having repair of leg laceration. gas induction with sevo N2O and oxygen. Can't get in drip. Put in LMA and immediately get stridor and airway obstruction and desaturate to 90%. Next step after increase FiO2 to 100% is:

A Remove LMA and deepen with sevoflurane

B Leave LMA and deepen with sevoflurane

C Intralingual Suxamethonium

D IM Atropine

E IM Suxamethonium


PP93 [Apr07] Q124

The Neonatal Facial Coding Scale (NFCS) used to assess pain in neonates includes all of the following except

A. Brow bulge

B. Chin quiver

C. Closed mouth

D. Deep nasolabial fold

E. Eyes squeezed shut


PP94 [Apr07]

A 25kg child is having liver resection and is rapidly given 1 unit of blood. Her CVP is 8. The cause most likely to be responsible for any haemodynamic instability she experiences is:

A. coagulopathy

B. hyperkalaemia

C. ABO incompatability

D. Hypocalcaemia

E. Hypothermia


ICU

IC85 [Apr07] Q115

A young woman has an MVA when driving home from a nightclub. She was known to have moderate MDMA (ecstasy) consumption. Which of the following complications is least likely to be due to MDMA?

A. Hyponatraemia

B. Hypotension

C. Pneumothorax

D. Sweating

E. Tachycardia


IC77 [Jul05] [Apr07]

What is most likely after exposure to nerve agents such as Sarin or DV.

A. sweating

B. dry skin

C. fasciculations

D. dilated pupil

E. tetany


IC80 [Jul06] [Apr07] Q3

Appropriate next investigation for blunt trauma, unstable patient with distended abdo?

A. CT abdo

B. Abdominal XR

C. FAST scan

D. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage

E. ?


IC86 [Apr07]

A young boy sustains a head injury and CT scan shows diffuse axonal injury. He is intubated and ventilated in the ICU and is going to theatre due to rising ICP’s (20 to 30)despite mannitol and cooling. The best anaesthetic to give is:

A. propofol and fentanyl

B. sevoflurane and remifentanil

C. isoflurane and remifentanil

D. option including nitrous oxide

E.  ?


IC87 [Apr07]

Young man, motor vehicle accident, hypotensive 70/50, HR 130, strongly +ve FAST scan, widened mediastinum on CXR. Most appropriate investigation to do re widened mediastinum at this stage

A. Aortography

B. CT with contrast

C. Intraoperative TOE

D. Repeat CXR

E. transthoracic ECHO


Pharmacology

PC49 [Apr07] Q121

The action of which drug is unchanged in a recipient following cardiac transplantation

A. Adenosine

B. Adrenaline

C. Atropine

D. Digoxin

E. Isoprenaline


PI66 [2002-Aug] Q96, [2003-Apr] Q57, [Apr07] Q57

The correct ranking of fat/blood partition co-efficients, in order of increasing solubility in fat, for sevoflurane (S), isoflurane (1), desflurane (D) and nitrous oxide (N20) is

A. N20 < D < S approximately = I

B. N20 approximately = D < S < I

C. N20<S<D< I

D. D<N20<S< I

E. D < N20 approximately = S < I


PL11 [Jul06] [Apr07]

Which local anaesthetic has least cardiotoxicity after inadvertent iv injection?

A. Etidocaine

B. Lignocaine

C. Bupivacaine

D. Levobupivacaine

E. Ropivacaine


PN22 [Apr99] [Aug99] [Apr07] Q34

Norpethidine toxicity

A. Is only seen if renal function is abnormal

B. Develops because the half life of norpethidine is twice that of pethidine

C. Is not seen unless treatment is prolonged

D. only seen if doses of pethidine in excess of 1.2g/day

E. May manifest early as anxiety and mood changes


PN41 [Apr07]

The elimination of drug metabolites unaffected by renal failure is:

A. Aspirin

B. Buprenorphine

C. Pethidine

D. Morphine

E. Oxycodone


PN43 [Jul06] [Apr07] Q1

Regarding opioids

A. Weight is the best predictor of morphine dose

B. A fentanyl PCA is the drug regime of choice for an opioid addict

C. morphine is associated with post operative delirium

D. pethidine is better than morphine for renal colic

E. Tramadol is less likely to cause sedation and respiratory depression than other opioids


PR43 [Mar93] [Apr07]

Plasma clearance of non-depolarising muscle relaxants in pregnant patients (when compared with matched non-pregnant controls) is:

A. Delayed because distribution half-life is prolonged due to increased circulating blood volume in late pregnancy

B. Delayed because elimination half-life is prolonged due to delayed hepatic & renal clearance due to hormonal changes in pregnancy

C. Accelerated because the distribution half-life is shortened due to changes in cardiac output in pregnancy

D. Accelerated because the elimination half-life is shortened due to increased hepatic and renal clearance due to hormonal changes in pregnancy

E. Accelerated because the distribution half-life is shortened due to the placental transfer of the relaxant to fetal & placental tissue.


PV13 [Mar93] [Aug96] [Aug99] [Mar00] [Jul00] [Apr07]

A ‘sleep dose’ of thiopentone in a healthy adult is likely to result in:

A. A fall in peripheral resistance followed by a rise in cardiac output

B. A fall in cardiac output followed by a rise in peripheral resistance

C. A fall in peripheral vascular resistance followed by a fall in cardiac output

D. A rise in peripheral vascular resistance followed by a fall in cardiac output

E. A fall in cardiac output followed by a fall in peripheral vascular resistance


PZ65 [Apr97] [Jul97] [Aug99] [Mar00] [Jul00] [2003-Apr] Q113, [Apr07] Q113

To normalise platelet function prior to surgery, chronic diclofenac therapy should be ceased for at least

A. 12 hours

B. 1-2 days

C. 4 days

D. 7 days

E. 10 days


PZ79a [2003-Aug] Q105, [2004-Apr] Q69, [Jul06] [Apr07] Q105

Features of paracetamol administration in children include

A. limitation of the daily dose to a maximum of 150 mg.kg-1 because of the risk of hepatotoxicity

B. reliable absorption when administered rectally with most patients achieving a therapeutic concentration with a loading dose of 20 mg.kg-1

C. peak blood levels being reached approximately 1 hour following rectal administration

D. a one hour delay between peak plasma concentration and maximum analgesia

E. a faster absorption of high dose rectal paracetamol compared to oral administration


PZ87a [2001-Apr] Q90, [2003-Apr] Q83, [2003-Aug] Q17, [Apr07]

When compared with non-selective non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), the COX-2 selective drugs

A. are less likely to induce bronchospasm in aspirin sensitive patients

B. cause significantly fewer adverse renal effects

C. have less effect on platelet function

D. have lower analgesic efficacy

E. have a similar incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects


PZ106 [Jul06] [Apr07]

Patient with severe depressive episode unresponsive to medications. On tranylcypramine (Parnate). How do you manage him for ECT?

A. Cancel the case. Do the ECT after he has been off his tranylcypramine for 2 weeks then proceed

B. refer to tertiary centre

C. use your normal drugs but proceed with caution

D. use midazolam and thiopentone (or: induce with midazolam and remifentanil)

E. give a small dose of esmolol then proceed


PZ118 [Jul05] [Mar06] [Apr07] Q80

In renal failure, a prolonged effect due to active metabolites is seen with all these EXCEPT

A. codeine

B. buprenorphine

C. pethidine

D. tramadol

E. aspirin


PZ119 [Mar06] [Apr07]

Fondoparinux:

A. Is associated with thrombocytopenia

B. Action independent of antithrombin III

C. Can be used in patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

D. No dose change in renal failure (?safe to use in renal failure)

E.

Physiology

PH60 [Apr07]

What raises intra-ocular pressure (IOP)?

A. metabolic acidosis

B. respiratory acidosis

C. miosis

D. reverse trendelenberg (head up)

E.


Statistics

ST20 [2001-Aug] Q83, [2002-Aug] Q78, [Apr07]

In a trial, 75 patients with an uncommon, newly described complication and 50 matched patients without this complication are selected for comparison of their exposure to a new drug. The results show

Complication present Complication absent

Exposed to new drug 50 25

NOT exposed 25 25

From this data

A. the relative risk of this complication with drug exposure CANNOT be determined

B. the odds ratio of this complication with drug exposure CANNOT be determined

C. the relative risk of this complication with drug exposure is 2

D. the odds ratio of this complication with drug exposure is 1.33 (recurring)

E. none of the above


ST21 [2002-Aug] Q122, [2003-Aug] Q87, [2004-Apr] Q67, [Apr07] Q87

Forty patients are randomly dived into two groups - one to receive induction agent A and another to receive induction agent B. The next day they are asked to rate their anaesthetic experience on a scale of 1 (very baD. to 5 (very gooD.. The most appropriate test to compare the anaesthetic experience of the two groups is the

A. unpaired t-test

B. Mann-Whitney test

C. Chi-square test

D. Kruskal-Wallis test

E. paired t-test


ST32 [Jul06] [Apr07]

If a new test is developed for a particular disease, the best way to determine its SPECIFICITY is to:

A. find a sample of people, some of whom have the disease and some who do not

B. find a sample of people, all of whom do not have the disease

C. find a sample of people, all of whom do not have the disease, and compare to the estimate of population prevalence

D. find a sample of people, all of whom have the disease

E. find a sample of people, all of whom have the disease, and compare to the estimate of population prevalence


ST26 [2004-Apr] Q91, [2004-Aug] Q74, [Jul06] [Apr07]

Correct statements regarding confidence intervals (CI) include all the following EXCEPT

A. CI are derived from the standard error (of the mean).

B. CI can be used to assess the precision of population parameter estimates.

C. The width of the CI depends on the degree of confidence required.

D. The width of the CI depends on the sample size.

E. The width of the CI depends on the mean value of the sample


ST35 [Apr07]


Test positive Test Negative

Disease present 80 20

Disease absent 20 180

Negative predictive value is:

A. 10%

B. 80%

C. 90%

D.

E.


Any comments you would like to add

2 questions in this exam have caught my interest. The AF question and the new question about complications of mediastinoscopy both seem to have come directly out of the CEACCP journal in December 2006 and February 2007 respectively. We had always assumed the exam was finalised straight after the previous exam when all the examiners were together, however I feel now that the MCQ's can be submitted much later. So my advice is to read the CEACCP articles right up to the month before your exam as they are a very common source of new MCQ's, rather than do what we did and stop reading them after October 2006 edition thinking the exam was already written!

Please use the Finals Debrief -April 2007 to add comments and you thoughts and experiences
and other feedback about the April 07 Finals Exam
Personal tools
Namespaces
Variants
Actions
Navigation
MCQs
Toolbox