Finals MCQs-Aug 2016
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For those sitting the ANZCA Part 2 in March 2019 and individuals and/or departments would like to participate in recalling the March 2019 MCQ paper, please email [email protected] to let me know that you can help. If anyone knows that this is already happening please let me know and we can combine efforts. Please remain anonymous if you wish. Please spread the word as I'm unable to edit the Black Bank Wiki main page nor the Finals Black Bank home page.
PLEASE record the MCQs you have recalled. Thank you to everyonwe who has contributed.
1) A 120kg lady 34/40 is admitted to the ward with threatened pre-term labour. What dose of s/c Clexane do you prescribe her for thromboprophylaxis?
- A. 20mg D
- B. 40mg D
- C. 60mg D
- D. 100mg D
- E. 120mg D
2) What is the arrangement of 3 lead ECG:
- A. Left arm – black, right arm – white, left leg – green
- B. Left arm – red, right arm – white, left leg – black
- C. Left arm – black, right leg – white, left leg – red
- D. Left arm – black, right arm – white, left leg – red
- E. Left arm – black, right arm – white, right leg – red
3) What is your aim for systolic blood pressure in a closed head injury
- A. 80 mmHg
- B. 90 mmHg
- C. 100 mmHg
- D. 110 mmHg
- E. 120 mmHg
4) The vocal cords are lax after an LMA anaesthetic. What nerve has been injured?
- A. Superior laryngeal
- B. Inferior laryngeal
- C. Recurrent laryngeal
5) What is the 1st line treatment of a young man in ED with recently diagnosed phaeochromocytoma
- who has presented with severe hypertension and tachycardia? He is not on any current treatment.
- A. Esmolol
- B. Phentolamine
- C. Phenoxybenzamine
- D. GTN
6) What is the safest duration between ceasing Ticagrelor and performing a neuraxial block?
- A. 1 day
- B. 3 days
- C. 5 days
- D. 7 days
7) You are a consultant anaesthetist asked to help a junior registrar who is
- having difficulty siting a labour epidural. In assisting them site the epidural
- all you do is place on sterile gloves.
- This is known as a:
- A. Slip
- B. Lapse
- C. Violation
- D. Deviation
- E. Mistake
8) You are called to assist a registrar in the next theatre who is having difficulty intubating a patient.
- On arrival, the nurse tells you he has been trying for 5 minutes and you notice the sats are 70%.
- You place an LMA easily and ventilate the patient back to normal saturations.
- According to Crisis Resource Management principles, the error the registrar was displaying is…
- A. Fixation error
- B. Failure to use cognitive aids
9) What is not a feature of Horner’s Syndrome?
- A. Exophthalmos
- B. Anhydrosis etc
- C. Miosis
10) Given a series of PFT’s all approximately in the 80%s. DLCO 102%. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Asthma
- B. Emphysema
- C. Fibrosis
- D. Pulmonary hypertension
11) Unilateral lumbar sympathetic block. Most likely side effect?
- A. Genitofemoral neuralgia
- B. Hypotension
12) Troponin rise in SAH occurs in what percentage of patients?
- A. 5-15%
- B. 15-30%
- C. 30-45%
- D. 45-60%
- E. 60-75%
13) Accidental needlestick injury with a hollow bore needle. Likelihood of Hepatitis C transmission?
- A. 0.3%
- B. 2%
- C. 10%
- D. 20%
- E. 30%
14) Emergence delirium in paediatric patients occurs most commonly after what type of surgery:
- A. Adenotonsillectomy
- B. Circumcision
- C. Closed reduction of fracture
- D. Colonoscopy
- E. Inguinal hernia repair
15) The Pin Index System for nitrous oxide on a size C cylinder:
- A. 1, 5
- B. 1, 6
- C. 2, 5
- D. 3, 5
- E. 3, 6
16) 70 year old male in the emergency department with a ?small bowel obstruction.
- On candesartan, an NSAID and a diuretic. His serum potassium is 7.0mmol/L.
- What is the first/initial step for lowering his potassium
- A. Slow IV injection of 10ml calcium gluconate 10%
- B. Salbutamol 5mg nebuliser
- C. 15IU insulin in 50ml of 50% dextrose
- D. Sodium bicarbonate 50ml
- E. Calcium resonium
17) A patient has a tumour of some sort. He is hypokalaemic and has a metabolic alkalosis.
- What is the tumour most likely secreting?
- A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
- B. Antidiuretic hormone
- C. Parathyroid-type secreting hormone
- D. Glucocorticoid
- E. Thyroid stimulating hormone
18) The nerve integrity monitor (NIM) endotracheal tube works by monitoring:
- A. Electromyography of internal laryngeal muscles
- B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve action potential
- C. Movement of the vocal cords on the endotracheal tube
- D. Pressure of the vocal cords on the endotracheal tube
- E. Recurrent laryngeal nerve action potential
19) External and internal diameter of the common gas outlet
- A. 30mm and 15mm
- B. 22mm and 15mm
- C. 30mm and 20mm
- D. 32mm and 20mm
20) Adult male is anaesthetised with a CVC in situ.
- Just before the surgeon starts the Line Isolation Monitor alarms about a leak of 5mA.
- What do you do?
- A. Check the diathermy pad
- B. Ensure the patient is earthed/grounded
- C. Unplug the CVL to isolate the patient until the fault is identified
- D. Sequentially remove non-essential monitors from the circuit until the fault is identified
- E. Stop the procedure and move the patient to a safe location
21) In a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, what is the most common direction of atlanto-occipital subluxation?
- A. Anterior
- B. Posterior
- C. Vertical
- D. Rotatory
- E. Lateral
22) An interosseus aspiration is least accurate for measuring:
- A. Albumin
- B. Creatinine
- C. Chloride
- D. Sodium
- E. Potassium
23) You are called to assist your registrar who is administering an interscalene nerve block.
- After injection of 2ml 0.75% ropivacaine the patient has a grand-mal seizure.
- The local anaesthetic has likely been injected into the:
- A. Dural cuff
- B. Internal jugular vein
- C. Internal carotid artery
- D. External jugular vein
- E. Vertebral artery
24) A patient has an above the elbow ulnar nerve palsy following a procedure. They
- A. Reduced sensation of posterior arm
- B. Arm held in persistent supination
- C. Unable to flex wrist
- D. Weakness of thumb abduction
- E. Weakness of finger adduction
25) You’ve been asked to set up an outside area recovery room.
- All of the following are essential in each bay except:
- A. ECG
- B. Sphygmanomanometer
- C. Stethoscope
- D. Pulse oximetry
- E. Thermometer
26) Praecordial thump
- A. Monitored ventricular fibrillation with no immediately available defibrillator
- B. Monitored ventricular tachycardia with no immediately available defibrillator
- C. ?
27) Patient asked to look straight ahead. Picture of eyes with lateral deviation of right eye. What is his abnormality?
- A. CN II palsy
- B. CN III palsy
- C. CN IV palsy
- D. CN V palsy
- E. CN VI palsy
28) A 63 yo lady has known chronic atrial fibrillation, hypertension, previous stroke, type 2 diabetes.
- What is her annual stroke risk if she is not on anticoagulation?
- A. 1.3%
- B. 4.0%
- C. 5.8%
29) A patient with cardiac disease gets short of breath moving around their house. What is their New York Heart Association classification?
- A. Class I
- B. Class II
- C. Class III
- D. Class IV
- E. Class V
30) Patient having resection of a lesion from the lateral border of their lower right lip.
- The surgeon does not want to perform local infiltration and the patient refuses a GA.
- Which nerve will you block?
- A. Infraorbital
- B. Mental
31) The afferent limb of the occulocardiac reflex is mediated by:
- A. Long and short ciliary nerves
- B. Facial nerve
- C. Vagus nerve
- D. Optic nerve
- E. Ophthalmic nerve
32) Patient’s core temperature drops 1 degree 20 minutes after induction of general anaesthesia. What is the most likely cause:
- A. Redistribution from core to peripheries
- B. Radiation
- C. Conduction from body to operating table/bed
- D. Evaporation
33) Well child for closed reduction of a fracture sustained 2 days ago.
- Well controlled asthma (on inhalers), current URTI. Chest sounds clear, systemically well.
- What is the best option for managing his airway?
- A. Controlled ventilation via ETT
- B. Spontaneous ventilation via ETT
- C. Spontaneous ventilation via face mask
- D. Spontaneous ventilation via Laryngeal Mask Airway
- E. Spontaneous ventilation via Proseal Laryngeal Mask Airway
34) Pressure comparison, list in order from highest to lowest:
- A-E. (different combos of 10 kPa/10 atm/10 psi/10 mmHg/10 cmH2O)
35) How much fibrinogen will it take to increase fibrinogen by 1g/L
- A. 1ml/kg
- B. 5ml/kg
- C. 10ml/kg
- D. 20ml/kg
- E. 30ml/kg
36) Time taken for plasma and brain equilibration of methadone
- A. 3 minutes
- B. 8 minutes
- C. 20 minutes
- D. 60 minutes
- E. 120 minutes
37) Septic elderly patient with multiorgan failure requiring laparotomy for suspected dead gut.
- INR 2.1, Hb 90, Platelets 105, Fib 4 (?or 1.5). What products to give?
- A. 2 units FFP, 1 unit platelets
- B. 2 units FFP, 1 unit blood
- C. 50IU/kg Prothrombinex to correct INR
- D. Platelets
- E. Fibrinogen to aim fib >2
38) BIS change when suxamethonium given to an awake patient:
- A. Decrease
- B. Increase
- C. Increase then decrease
- D. Decrease then increase
- E. Nothing
39) Drug least likely to interfere with MEP monitoring during scoliosis surgery
- A. N2O
- B. Non-depolarising neuromuscular blocker
- C. Opioids
- D. Propofol
- E. Volatile
40) According to NAP4: incidence of failed cricothyroidotomy
- A. ?
- B. ?
41) Morbidly obese lady in ICU with pneumonia, elective tracheostomy placed 8 hours ago.
- On rolling for pressure care, started desaturating and you suspect dislodgement of the tracheostomy.
- What is your immediate management?
- A. Readvance tracheostomy over gum elastic bougie
- B. Use fibreoptic bronchoscope
- C. Intubate from the mouth
- D. Insert airway exchange catheter
- E. Perform needle cricothyroidotomy
42) A 53 year old man is having major urological surgery.
- The surgeon asks you to give methylene blue to help avoid ureteric injury.
- What drug interacts with methylene blue?
- A. Droperidol
- B. Prazocin
- C. Fluoxetine
- D. Oxybutynin
- E. Risperidone
43) You review a patient 12 hours post right pneumonectomy on the ward.
- He is hypoxic, distressed with distended neck veins.
- hat is the best IMMEDIATE management?
- A. Clamp chest tube to prevent more air leak
- B. Place patient left lateral
- C. Place another chest tube on the right side
- D. Perform urgent pericardiocentesis
- E. Urgently transfuse 2 units packed red blood cells
44) What is a positive endotracheal tube cuff leak test?
- A. >110ml leak with cuff deflated
- B. >110ml leak with cuff deflated
- C. Audible leak with cuff deflated
- D. No audible leak with cuff deflated
- E. No audible leak with cuff pressure <30cm H2O
45) Horner's syndrome results from blockade of which structure?
- A. Ciliary ganglion
- B. Stellate ganglion
- C. Pterygopalatine ganglion
- D. Otic ganglion
- E. Submadibular ganglion
46) According to PS09, the minimum requirement for administering propofol for conscious sedation is
- A. Medical practitioner with a skilled assistant that is separate from the assistant to the proceduralist
- B. Medical practitioner
- C. Nurse supervised by proceduralist with recent ALS training
- D. Specialist anaesthetist
- E. Nurse with advanced airway skills
47) The characteristic respiratory pattern in a patient with an acute C5 spinal cord injury is
- A. Rapid respiratory rate
- B. Arterial hypoxaemia
- C. Chest wall immobility
- D. Preserved cough
- E. Preserved inspiratory force
48) What is the mechanism of central sensitisation?
- A. Increased intracellular magnesium
- B. Antagonism of the NMDA receptor
- C. Glycine is the major neurotransmitter involved
- D. Recurrent a-delta fibre activation
- E. Alteration in gene expression
49) What is the reason infants desaturate faster than adults on induction with rapid sequence intubation?
- A. More difficult to preoxygenate
- B. More rapid detection of hypoxia
- C. FRC decreased more than adults
- D. Drugs work more rapidly
- E. Persistent R to L shunt
50) A woman complains of paraesthesia in her hands when hanging out the washing.
- She also has muscle wasting on her hands and a weak radial pulse.
- What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
- B. Brachial plexus injury
- C. Paraneoplastic syndrome
- D. Lupus
- E. Coarctation of the aorta
51) A neonate is born floppy and apnoeic. They do not start breathing following stimulation. What FiO2 should you initially perform bag-mask ventilation with?
- A. 0.21
- B. 0.3
- C. 0.5
- D. 0.7:E. 1
52) Which would be consistent with deep partial thickness burns?
- A. Pain to deep pressure only, decreased capillary refill
- B. Blanches to pressure, very painful
- C. Painful to air, red and wet, blanches to pressure
- D. Not painful, does not blanch
53) Background radiation is 2.5mSv per annum. How much ionising radiation in a CTPA?
- A. 0.15mSv
- B. 0.5mSv
- C. 5mSv
- D. 15mSv
- E. 50mSv
54) You assist a junior to do spinal. Instead of gown and gloving, you put on gloves. What catergory of error is this?
- A. deviation
- B. lapse
- C. mistake
- D. slip
- E. violation
55) Difficult intubation least likely in
- A. Apert syndrome
- B. Down’s syndrome
- C. Hurler syndrome
- D. Pierre Robin syndrome
- E. Treacher Collin’s syndrome
56) The following have been found to decrease the incidence of spinal cord ischaemia EXCEPT
- A. CSF drainage
- B. high dose IV methylprednisolone
- C. maintaining MAP > 80
- D. monitoring motor evoked potentials
- E. preop identification of intercostal lumbar arteries supplying artery of Adamkiewizcs
57) The musculocutaneous nerve is difficult to block because
- A. arises from C6
- B. arises from lateral head of median nerve
- C. arises from medial head of median nerve
- D. congenitally absent in 10% of the population
- E. located outside the axillary sheath
58) 0.5mg/kg mannitol for kidney transplant
- A. increases survival of graft
- B. increases renal tubular necrosis
- C. reduces post-transplant dialysis requirements
- D. no change in urine output
59) According to the ATACAS trial, aspirin causes
- A. increased red blood cell transfusion
- B. increased platelet transfusion
- C. increased return to theatre for hemorrhage
- D. no change in myocardial infarct
- E. reduced rate of thromboembolic events
- F. ?no increase in the risk of bleeding
60) SAH, delayed ischaemia most common
- A. 24-28 hours
- B. 4-10 days
- C. 10-14 days
- D. 14-21 days
61) In RBC transfusions in Aus/NZ, the most common infection transmitted:
- A. hep A
- B. hep B
- C. hep C
- D. HIV 1
- E. HIV 2
62) [52. repeat Aug 15] You suspect your patient just had anaphylactic reaction.
- The optimal time to take blood for tryptase estimation:
- A. within 15min of onset of event
- B. 1-3 hours after event
- C. 3-6 hours after event
- D. 6-12 hours after event
- E. 24 hours after event
63) 66 year old with moderate AS (AV area 1.1cm2). You see him in preadmission clinic for elective THR.
- Aside from mild dyspnoea on exertion, he is asymptomatic.
- What is appropriate management?
- A. accept for surgery
- B. beta block and accept for surgery
- C. organise myocardial perfusion scan
- D. postpone until AV replacement
- E. postpone until percutaneous aortic valvotomy
64) Glycine irrigation is required for TURP if the resection is performed with
- A. greenlight laser
- B. helium laser
- C. monopolar laser
- D. Nd:Yag laser
- E. plasma kinetic diathermy
65) 56yo male with chronic T6 injury undergoes cystoscopy and TURBT under GA.
- In PACU, he is hypertensive, bradycardic has chest tightness and is sweating. Most likely cause:
- A. blocked catheter
- B. fluid overload
- C. myocardial ischaemia
- D. perforated bladder
- E. serotonin syndrome
66) u see your trainee self-injecting propofol while at work. What is the best immediate action?
- A. notify trainee’s next of kin
- B. notify medical board
- C. notify trainee’s supervisor of training
- D. relieve trainee of clinical duties
- E. terminate trainee’s employment
67) Man undergoing transcatheter aortic valve replacement, ECG shown with
- two broad complex beats (LBBB pattern) and clear p waves approx. Rate of 100
- but no ventricular beats.
- What is the best way of managing this
- (I think it was this ECG, but correct me please if I am wrong: complete heart block
- --> p-wave systole (aka ventricular standstill -- CPR was NOT an option)
- A. atropine
- B. external pacing
- C. adrenaline
- D. isoprenaline
- E. transvenous pacing
68) Risk of anaphylaxis recurring post-rocuronium anaphylaxis is greatest with
- A. atracurium
- B. cisatracurium
- C. pancuronium
- D. vecuronium
- E. none, as cross sensitivity is unpredictable
69) 60. elderly undergoing orthopaedic surgery for acute hip fracture requires
- thromboprophylaxis in the perioperative period.
- Best pharmacological option:
- A. LMWH or aspirin
- B. LMWH or unfractionated heparin
- C. LMWH or fondaparinux
- D. UFH or fondaparinux
- E. unfractionated heparin or warfarin
70) Spirometry can measure
- A. TLV
- B. RV
- C. FRC
- D. TLC
- E. VC
71) Pulmonary function tests:
- FEV1 82% predicted
- FVC 86% predicted
- FEV1/FVC 81% predicted
- FEV25-75 80% predicted
- TLC 81% predicted
- RV 94% predicted
- DLCO 102% predicted
- MVV 42% predicted
What is the diagnosis?
- A. asthma
- B. emphysema
- C. interstitial fibrosis
- D. myasthenia gravis
- E. pulmonary hypertension
72) 27 weeks gestation. BP 165/105. Best treatment:
- A. atenolol
- B. candesartan
- C. labetalol
- D. magnesium sulphate
- E. nifedipine
73) 40year old short of breath (flow-volume loop shown)
- A. artefact of equipment failure
- B. fixed intra and extra thoracic obstruction
- C. normal
- D. variable extrathoracic obstruction
- E. variable intrathoracic obstruction
74) Post dental surgery, resident prescribes 1L 0.9% saline + 5% dextrose.
- Registrar asks if he should amend the order?
- A. no, maintain oncotic activity
- B. no, prevent hyponatraemia
- C. only if child >2 years old
- D. yes, will cause hyperglycaemia
- E. yes, fluid is hypertonic
75) 87yo for selective neck dissection for laryngeal cancer with musculocutaneous flap repair.
- He is awake and sitting up. BP 120/70. Flap capillary refill time <1sec. What is best management?
- A. IV fluid bolus
- B. intra-arterial streptokinase
- C. IV dextran 40
- D. IV heparin
- E. Re-explore flap surgically
76) 120kg lady needs DVT prophylaxis. What dose?
- A. 40mg daily
- B. 60mg daily
- C. 80mg daily
- D. 100mg daily
- E. 120mg daily
77) 75. During CPR, What percentage of pre-arrest cardiac output is achieved by effective external cardiac compression?
- A. <20
- B. 20-30
- C. 40-50
- D. 60-70
- E. >70
78) Patient is nil by mouth. 2L Hartmann’s, 1L NS over 24 hours. How much Na in mmol did he receive?
- A. 390
- B. 410
- C. 430
- D. 440
- E. 460
79) What characteristic of local anaesthetic influences or increases duration of nerve block?
- A. lipid solubility
- B. molecular weight
- C. pKa
- D. presence of amide bond
- E. protein binding
80) Latest guidelines regarding Breast milk:
- A. Discard 12 hours post procedure
- B. discard 24 hours post procedure
- C. discard 1st feed
- D. discard first 2 feeds
- E. discarding not required
81) Stabbing injury to lateral half of spinal cord. What are the classical signs 3 segments below lesion?
- A. ipsilateral loss of light touch sensation, contralateral loss of temperature sensation
- B. ipsilateral loss of motor, contralateral loss of light touch sensation
- C. ipsilateral loss of pain sensation, contralateral loss of light touch sensation
- D. ipsilateral loss of pain sensation, contralateral loss of motor
- E. ipsilateral loss of temperature sensation, contralateral loss of pain sensation
82.Dental extraction of right lower 3rd molar (48).
- Patient complains of paraesthesia to the chin.
- This is most likely neuropraxia to
- A. glossopharyngeal n
- B. inferior alveolar n
- C. lingual n
- D. long bucchal nerve
- E. mental nerve
83) 85 yo for ORIF NOF. No medical past history. Exam normal.
- FBE, Electrolytes, ECG yesterday normal.
- Now in rapid AF with ventricular rate 110-145. BP 130/80.
- Best management:
- A. amiodarone
- B. direct current cardioversion after induction
- C. digoxin
- D. heparin
- E. metoprolol
83) Sub-Tenon block. Which muscle is most likely to be missed
- A. internal oblique
- B. lateral rectus
- C. medial rectus
- D. superior oblique
- E. superior rectus
84) Adenosine can be used to terminate an arrhythmia due to:
- A. Atrial fibrillation
- B. Atrial flutter
- C. WPW
- D. VT
- E. Torsades
85) PA CXR. What is enlarged (CXR with enlarged L:A.
- A. aorta
- B. LA
- C. LV
- D. RA
- E. RV
86) The following are consistent with acute systemic inflammatory response except
- A. hypotension
- B. hypothermia
- C. leukopenia
- D. tachycardia
- E. tachypnoea
87) A patient undergoing elective coiling of cerebral aneurysm has an abrupt rise in MAP.
- This is most likely due to
- A. acute hydrocephalus
- B. contrast reaction
- C. embolic complication
- D. vascular rupture
- E. vessel thrombosis
88) A patient with a haemopneumothorax has a chest drain in situ. The chest drain is attached
- to a 3 bottle underwater seal drain apparatus, and the system is attached to the wall suction
- at -80cmH2O.
- Omission of water from the wet suction bottle of this apparatus will cause
- A. excessive negative pressure in the water seal bottle, resulting in loss of the water seal
- B. failure of the water seal chamber to oscillate
- C. inability to apply negative pressure to the pleural cavity
- D. possible return of drain contents into the pleural space
- E. re-expansion pulmonary oedema
89) A multicentre trial reports that using N2O as part of general anaesthesia
- has a relative risk of morbidity of 0.96 (95% confidence interval 0.82-1.13).
- This means
- A. there is 95% confidence that N2O is assoc with an increased risk of morbidity
- B. the result is significant as the confidence interval range is very small
- C. the sample mean has a 95% chance of being between 0.82 to 1.13
- D. the study size was not large enough to find a difference
- E. the true relative risk has a 95% chance of being between 0.82 to 1.13
90) 125. Following donation after cardiac death, the maximum warm ischaemic time acceptable for procuring the lungs is
- A. 30min
- B. 45 min
- C. 60min
- D. 90min
- E. 120min
91) R) lower lip 10mm cancer. Surgeon doesn’t want to infiltrate the area with local anaesthetic. Patient refuses general anaesthetic. Which block do you need to do?
- A. facial n
- B. hypoglossal n
- C. infraorbital n
- D. lingual n
- E. mental n
92) 63 yo right pneumonectomy for malignancy.
- 12 hours post op, profound hypotensive and shock.
- Raised CVP. Immediately:
- A. clamp any open chest drains to minimise leak
- B. insert new chest drain on operative side
- C. perform urgent pericardiocentesis
- D. place patient in L) lateral position
- E. urgently transfuse 2 units of packed blood cells
93) Open AAA repair, best method to reduce risk of renal impairment?
- A. Sodium bicarbonate
- B. N-acetylcysteine
- C. Maintaining intravascular volume
- D. Minimise cross clamp time
- E. ?mannitol
94) You give a transfusion of 1u PRBC.
- What is the maximum duration of time in which it must it be completed?
- A. 2 hours
- B. 4 hours
- C. 6 hours
- D. 8 hours
- E. 10 hours
95) Patient with chronic liver failure. Coagulation factor least likely to be affected:
- A. I
- B. VII
- C. VIII
- D. XII
96) An 80 year old man undergoes a unilateral lumbar sympathetic blockade.
- The most likely side effect that he experiences is:
- A. Genitofemoral neuralgia
- B. Haematuria
- C. Postural hypotension
- D. Lumbar radiculopathy
- E. Psoas haematoma
97) Patient having a craniotomy, MAP 80, CVP 5. Both transducers are at the level of the heart, 13cm below the level of the tragus. What is the CPP?
- A. 60mmHg
- B. 65mmHg
- C. 70mmHg
- D. 75mmHg
- E. 80mmHg
98) Urosurgical procedure. Surgeon wants to give methylene blue. This is contraindicated if patient is taking:
- A. Fluoxetine
- B. Droperidol
- C. Risperidone
- D. Oxybutinin
- E. Prazosin
99) You are the anaesthetist at a Caesarean Section for a 36/40 gestation pregnancy.
- The baby at birth is floppy and apnoea.
- You decide that positive pressure ventilation via mask is necessary.
- The recommended FiO2 is:
- A. 0.21
- B. 0.4
- C. 0.6
- D. 0.8
- E. 1.0
100) 64 year old male in preoperative clinic. HR 60. Free T4 is normal. TSH high.
- This is consistent with:
- A. non compliance with thyroxine treatment
- B. autoimmune thyroiditis
- C. sick euthyroid
- D. previous hypophysectomy
- E. subclinical hyperthyroidism
102. Patient receives 1 unit packed red blood cells. 1 hour later becomes hypoxic,
- febrile, higher airway pressure and copious frothy sputum.
- A. ABO incompatibility
- B. Sepsis
- C. Transfusion related overload
- D. Transfusion related acute lung injury
- E. Transfusion related sepsis
103. What is the maximum Intralipid 20% dose?
- A. 6ml/kg
- B. 8ml/kg
- C. 10ml/kg
- D. 12ml/kg
- E. 14ml/kg
104. How many vials of dantrolene should be kept at a remote hospital which has general anaesthesia services?
- A. 2
- B. 6
- C. 12
- D. 24
- E. 36
105. Which volatile agent has the longest time to environmental degradation
- A. Desflurane
- B. Sevoflurane
- C. Isoflurane
- D. Enflurane
- E. Xenon
106. 20 yr old male 80 kg in a house fire sustained 25% burns.
- Using the Parkland formula, what is his fluid resuscitation requirement for the first 8 hours?
- A. 3L of 0.9% Normal Saline
- B. 3L of Hartmann’s solution
- C. 3L of colloid
- D. 4L of 0.9% Normal Saline
- E. 4L of Hartmann’s solution
107. 3 yr old child with # forearm, best way to valid pain assessment
- A. the reported severity from the child
- B. the reported severity from the parent
- C. the reported severity from the nursing staff
- D. using the FLACC scale
- E. the Wong-Baker Faces scale
108. Female singer underwent GA with LMA.
- Next day complains of voice/singing impairment.
- Nasendoscopy shows one vocal cord in the paramedian position.
- What nerve is affected?
- A. lingual
- B. hypoglossal
- C. glossopharyngeal
- D. recurrent laryngeal
- E. superior laryngeal
109. According to NAP4 what is the rate of failure for emergency cannula cricothyroidotomy?
- A. 10%
- B. 20%
- C. 40%
- D. 60%
- E. 80%
110. Blalock-Taussig shunt inserts into the right pulmonary artery, originating from the:
- A. Right subclavian artery
- B. IVC
- C. SVC
- D. Aorta
- E. Axillary artery
111. A patient has come in with TCA overdose. Wide QRS on ECG (Torsades). How do you treat them?
- A. calcium gluconate
- B. amiodarone
- C. lignocaine
- D. magnesium
- E. atropine
112. What protective mask to wear in laparoscopy for patient with disseminated TB
- A. N95
- B. P99
- C. R95
- D. None
- E. Surgical mask
113. According to the ARC, precordial thump is only indicated for:
- A. monitored pulseless VF if defibrillator not immediately available
- B. monitored pulseless VT if defibrillator not immediately available
- C. unwitnessed cardiac arrest
- D. witnessed onset of asystole caused by AV conduction disturbance
- E. unwitnessed unmonitored cardiac arrest
114. Patient with a history of smoking. patient with stridor, waking him up from sleep.
- What investigations to do next?
- A. ?
- B. CT neck
115. 4month old Term neonate, noted to have intermittent stridor a few days after birth,
- then parents also notice stridor during feeding and sleep.
- Otherwise normal and healthy.
- Most likely condition is:
- A. Cri-du-chat syndrome
- B. Laryngomalacia
- C. Tracheomalacia
- D. Laryngocoele
- E. ? something to do with cord paralysis
116. You notice a fire from the anaesthetic machine. Which is the most useful extinguisher?
- A. CO2
- B. blanket
- C. fire hose
- D. foam extinguisher
- E. wet chemical extinguisher
117. Randomised controlled trial means:
- A. Patients randomly allocated to treatment groups
- B. Patients randomly allocated to treatment or placebo
- C. Patients allocated randomly to groups before treatment arms decided
- D. Neither the patient nor the investigator knows which group the patient is in
118. Young man in the emergency department.
- Opens his eyes to voice, removes his tie when instructed to and is speaking, but confused.
- What is his GCS?
- A. 10
- B. 11
- C. 12
- D. 13
- E. 14
119. Patient with respiratory failure, low PaO2/FiO2 ratio,
- cardiac index of 1.7, PCWP of 25.
- Which mode of ECMO would be most appropriate?
- A. VA
- B. VV
- C. AV
120. What is the largest size suction catheter that can fit through a size 4.0 ETT?
- A. 6F
- B. 8F
- C. 10F
- D. 12F
121. In an infant, the intercristal line corresponds to
- A. L1-2
- B. L2-3
- C. L3-4
- D. L4-5
- E. L5-S1
122. You are trialling a new drug for hypertension in one group of patients
- and comparing it to placebo (given to another group).
- In three months time you will measure the blood pressure and want to compare
- the two groups. Knowing that the sample is non-parametric,
- Which test would be most appropriate?
- A. Chi squared
- B. Fishers exact test
- C. Student's t-test
- D. Mann-whitney U test
- E. Bland Altman test
123. What is the best indication of fluid responsiveness
- B. BP change when legs are raised
124. What is the timing of peak respiratory depression post 300 mcg morphine intrathecally?
- A. < 3.5 hours
- B. 3.5 – 7.5 hours
- C. 7 - 12.5 hours
- D. 12.5 -18 hours
- E. > 18 hours
125. Pregnant patient with BP 140/. What is indication for MgSO4?
- A. seizure prophylaxis
- B. anti-hypertensive
- C. foetal neuroprotection
126. Maximum level of serum Mg after administration of MgSO4?
- A. 1 mmol/l
- B. 2 mmol/l
- C. 3 mmol/l
- D. 4 mmol/l
- E. 5 mmol/l
127. Patient with traumatic brain injury patient.
- Cerebral angiogram shows Cerebral perfusion = 15mL/100g/min,
- cerebral oxygen consumption 3.5mL/100g/min.
- This is consistent with:
- A. Cerebral hyperperfusion
- B. Reperfusion injury
- C. Cerebral ischaemia
- D. Appropriate autoregulation
- E. Cereberal vasoconstriction
128. What is the mechanism of Trauma induced coagulopathy
- A. acidosis
- B. hypothermia
- C. endothelial damage from ischaemia
- D. dilution of coagulation factors from resuscitation fluids
129. You are inserting a right internal jugular vein CVL.
- Why is it important to avoid turning the patient's head extremely to the left?
- A. Uncomfortable for the patient
- B. Increases risk of internal carotid artery puncture
- C. Compresses internal jugular vein and makes it more difficult to puncture
- D. Distorts the anatomy, making the vein more difficult to correctly identify
- E. Increases risk of external jugular vein puncture
130. What happens with oxygen flush is pressed?
- A. oxygen 20-30L/min
- B. oxygen 50-70L/min
- C. oxygen and volatile at 20-30L/min
- D. oxygen and volatile at 50-70L/min
131. Intubation view: Little space between epiglottis and posterior pharyngeal wall. What is the modified C&L classification?
- A. 2A
- B. 2B
- C. 3A
- D. 3B
- E. 4
Rpt 2011B, 2012A, 2013A, 2013B
132. Relative contraindications to mediastinoscopy include
- A. Cervical spondylosis
- B. Emphysema
- C. Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
- D. Poor left ventricular function
- E. Superior vena cava syndrome
133. Asystolic arrest adrenaline just given, how often do you give adrenaline?
- A. 2 min
- B. 3 min
- C. after 1 loop of ACLS algorithm
- D. after 2 loops of ACLS algorithm
135. Tumour lysis syndrome causes all of the following biochemical abnormalities EXCEPT:
- A. Hyperkalaemia
- B. Hypernatraemia
- C. Hyperphosphataemia
- D. Hyperuricaemia
- E. Hypocalcaemia
135. Balloon pump trace 1:2
- A. Early inflation
- B. Late inflation
- C. Early deflation
- D. Late deflation
- E. No problem
136. Healthy mother undergoing surgery 4 months post-partum. What are current recommendations regarding when to resume breast feeding post-surgery?
- A. 12 hours after procedure
- B. 24 hours after procedure
- C. Discard first feed post procedure
- D. Discard first two feeds post procedure
- E. No need to discard
137. Complications of patient with anorexia nervosa include all except
- A. Cardiomyopathy
- B. Delayed gastric emptying
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
- E. Prolonged QT
138. 8 year old boy under general anaesthetic, BP about 85/40.
- ECG trace given showing SVT. What is the appropriate treatment?
- A. IV Adenosine 100ug/kg
- B. IV Amiodarone 5mg/kg
- C. IV Esmolol 0.5mg/kg
- D. Sync DC Shock 1J/kg
- E. IV verapimil
139. Propofol is a Category (...) drug in pregnancy:
- (gave the full definition of each category)
- A. A
- B. B1
- C. B2
- D. B3
- E. C
140. In a patient with severe hepatic fibrosis.
An increased risk of life threatening haemorrhage is best indicated by:
- A. dysfibrinogenaemia
- B. hypoalbuminaemia
- C. portal HTN
- D. increased PT time
- E. thrombocytopaenia
141. The Swan Ganz catheter is unreliable for measurements of Pulmonary Artery SBP
- and DBP due to length and compliance of tubing.
- This affects the measuring system by:
- A. decreasing resonant frequency
- B. decreasing frequency response
- C. decreasing damping coefficient
- D. inducing zero error
- E. inducing baseline drift
Rpt Multiple 2006B
142. Woman for LUSCS. Allergic to amoxycillin. Reaction is limited to a rash.
- For surgical antibiotic prophylaxis consider: (definitely said "consider")
- A. Cefazolin
- B. Cefoxitime
- C. Clindamycin
- D. Gentamicin
- E. Vancomycin
143. ROTEM picture asking what is the problem.
- A. Hyperfibrinolysis
144. In a patient taking dabigatran prior to surgery:
- A. Stop 7 days in advance
- B. Stop 3 days in advance
- C. Stop 3 days in advance and bridge with clexane
- D. Continue until day of surgery
- E. Check INR on day of surgery
145. In patients with an opioid PCA, adding a NSAID will reduce the rate of PONV by
- A. 5%
- B. 10%
- C. 15%
- D. 20%
- E. 25%
146. Arteriolar dilatation occurs with
- A. Serotonin
- B Angiotensin I
- C Neuropeptide Y
- D Endothelin
- E. Vasointestinal Peptide
147. Which drug is best administered as a racemic mixture?
148. Regarding a graded Dose-Response curve (note: question may have used a drug as clinical context)
- A. There is linearity between 20-80% of max response
- B. There is linearity between 20-80% of max dose
- C. Characteristics of the drug can be deduced by calculating the ED50 and the Hill coefficient
- D. The addition of a synergistic drug causes a right-shift of the curve
- E. [Something I can't remember but didn't seem right]