July 2007 MCQs

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Primary Physiology Black Bank | Primary Pharmacology Black Bank

Primary exam on July 2007


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Basic Physiology

BP08 [July-07] Giant Squid Axons are used to study action potentials because:

A. They are large

B. They only contain sodium channels

C. ?

D. ?

E. ?

Fluid & Electrolyte Physiology

FE30 Infusion of 40ml/kg of 0.9% saline solution will cause: *new*
A. Hypochloraemic metabolic acidosis.
B. Hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
C. Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis.
D. Hyperchloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
E. No acid base disturbance.

FE32 Post-thoracotomy the drain is leaking fluid with protein, fat, lymphocytes etc. What could be the cause?
A. Bleeding
B. Thoracic duct injury
C. sympathectomy
D. Pleural fluid

Alt version- A fluid that has protein, free fatty acids, lymphocytes, and clotting factors would be:
A. thoracic lymph
B. plasma
D. Ascitic fluid
E. serum

FE31 Lymph flow:
A. greatest when skeletal muscle contracting
B. when interstitial pressure 1-2mmHg above atmospheric
C. approx. 1000ml per hour via thoracic duct
D. ?

The following electrolytes Na 120mmol/L, K6.2mmol/L, CL 80mmol/L are consistent with "*New*"
A. Dehydration
B. Hypoadrenalism
C. Primary Hyperaldosteronism
D. Water intoxication
E. Na Loss

answer: B see: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Addison%27s_disease

Acid-Base Physiology

Which of the following is a 'strong ion'? *repeat*
A. PO4
B. SO4
C. Cl
D. Albumin
E. Propyl geline

Answer C - Chloride

Stewarts Strong Ion theory states that the difference between strong cations and anions, independently influences the pH of a solution.

SID = { [Na+] + [K+] + [Ca++] + [Mg++] } - { [Cl-] + [Other strong anions-] }

and in human ECF is in the range 40-44. However Millers Anaesthesia also lists SO4 as a strong cation and (think sulfuric acid) so this could also be correct, but based on the formula above, chloride is the most correct.

i think SID = { [Na+] + [K+] + 2[Ca++] + 2[Mg++] } - { [Cl-] + [Other strong anions-] }

Respiratory Physiology

With constant oxygen consumption and constant (I think it was) alveolar ventilation, mixed venous oxygen tension will increase with: *new*
A. alkalaemia.
B. hypothermia.
C. decreased 2,3 DPG.
D. hypercarbia.
E. none of the above.

(I thought it might have "Keeping CO, O2 carrying capacity and consumption constant a change/increase in mixed oxygen tension will occur with"...this may have been a repeat question)

answer: B see Clinical Anesthesia --- i think answer is D (hypercarbia). The above reference mentions hypothermia will increase oxygen tension only if oxygen consumption decreases but stem says constant consumption. ODC will right shift (increasing pO2) with increase PCO2 vs left shifting with options A,B and C. And of course Henry's Law, decrease temp, increases gas solubility decreasing partial pressure/tension. Anyone else agree/disagree?? - I'm not so sure... the question is referring to mixed venous oxygen tension. A hypercarbia would cause a decreased paO2 (can be estimated using the alveolar gas equation given that there is no great A-a gradient), and at a constant oxygen consumption, this would mean the pvO2 would be even lower. I'm going with "none of the above"

Answer D. This is covered in The Bohr Effect in P&K. R shift of OxyDis Curve from hypercarbia increases the PO2 enhancing the gradient for O2 delivery to tissues. This means the PO2 in venous blood rises.

For a normal oxygen-Hb dissociation curve (Temp 37, pH 7.4, pCO2 40), which of the following paired values are most accurate? *repeat*
A. SaO2 99%, PaO2 350 mmHg
B. SaO2 98%, PaO2 150 mmHg
C. SaO2 97%, PaO2 ?
D. SaO2 94%, PaO2 65mmHg
E. SaO2 91%, PaO2 60mmHg

Answer E This is not a good question if you dont know the Kelman equation computation of the ODC (who would!) Calculator.

Increases in respiratory rate cause changes in lung compliance because of "*New*"
A. Gas trapping in apical alveoli
B. Alveoli with long time constants
C. ??somthing with airways resistance
D. ??something with hypercarbia

answer: ?C see:Cardiopulmonary anatomy & physiology

Answer: B see P&K p80. Long time constants overlap with increased respiratory rate and dynamic compliance decreases. This is frequency dependent compliance change.

Cardiovascular Physiology

CV80A prolonged PR interval, ST segment flattening, and the appearance of a U-wave is consistent with: *new*

A. Hyperkalaemia
B. Hypokalaemia
C. Hypomagneseamia
D. Hypocalcaemia
E. Hypermagnesaemia

CV87 Question about conductance of blood flow

A. is directly related to resistance
B. directly related to the diameter squared
C. same as pressure difference between arterial and venous system
D. ?
E. ??addition in parallel circuits to get total conductance??

Question about coronary blood flow, which is wrong? *new*
A. drains via anterior coronary vein into right atrium
B. oxygen extraction is maximal, no oxygen reserve

answer: A Coronary blood flow mechanics, distribution, and control

Question about ECG recording *new*
A. Isoelectric because right ventricle depolaristion is opposited to ?left ventricle
B. QT interval is proportional to HR

QT is inversely proportional to HR (as Action potenial duration is inversely proportional to HR)

In a normal, healthy 70 kg male what is the end-systolic volume of the left ventricle?
A. 10-20 ml
B. 20-30 ml
C. 50-70 ml
D. 90-100 ml
E. 100-120ml
Answer: c 50 - 70 mL Guyton and Hall states that the end-systolic volume is equal to 40 - 50 mL.

Cardiac cells *new*:
A. RMP -60mV
B. RMP changes with changes in extracellular K+ concentration
C. Action potential magnitude?/amplitude? changes with changes in extracellular potassium concentration

answer: B see:EK = -61 log [K+]i / [K+]o

I agree, however, isn't C also possibly correct? A change in RMP, changes the potential closer or further away from threshold - and this effects AP amplitude and conduction velocity

C is wrong. AP amplitude is changed if ECF Na conc changes

Renal Physiology

KD41 Regarding the renal effects of intermittent positive pressure ventilation: *new*
A. Na+ retention due to increased ANP release.
B. Decreased cardiac output causes oliguria.
C. ???increased venous pressure and ??increase/decreases in renal blood blow

Juxtamedullary nephrons *new*
A. Have long loops of henle
B. ? have no glomeruli in the cortex
(Note, the stem for this question actually included the term "Juxtaglomerular nephrons")

answer: A see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Juxtamedullary_nephron

KD40 Increased tubular reabsorption with increased GFR is related to "*New*"
A. Glomerulotubular balance
B. Autoregulation
C. Tubuloglomerular Balance
D. Tubuloglomerular Feedback

GIT Physiology

Blood & Immunology

I think it's a repeat about FFP and what it contains..

BL12 Following breakdown of haemoglobin

A. free iron transported in plasma and excreted in urine
B. free bilirubin transported in plasma bound to albumen
C. globin chains reused in formation of new haemoglobin
D. Heme broken down in liver to biliverdin
E. none of above

answer: B

A wrong, iron+ plasma transferrin > marrow erythroblasts

B Correct: The globin chains are broken down to amino acids and reenter the amino acid pool. The iron is reutilized by the bone marrow for the synthesis of haemoglobin. The protoporphyrin ring is opened to form biliverdin. Biliverdin is metabolised to bilirubin which is bound to albumin and carried to the liver. (P&K p.238)

C wrong, globins>amino acids>general protein synthesis

D wrong, maily bone marrow + liver + spleen

Endocrine & Metabolic Physiology


NU10 The sharp initial pain associated with injury is transmitted by: *new*
A. Unmyelinated C fibres
B. Unmyelinated Aδ fibres
C. Nerve fibres with a conduction velocity of approximately 15 m/sec
D. Nerve fibres which project to the anterior horn and the spinothalamic tract
E. Nerve fibres with a diameter of less than 2 µm

Some horrific question about dull pain transmission and paleospinothalamic vs neospinothalamic tracts...

Yes, a stem like "the spinothalamic tract consists of paleothalamic and neothalamic tracts..."

The neospinothalamic tracts:
A. synapse in the substantia gelatinosa of the dorsal horn.
B. ? second order neurons projecting to ventro basal part of the thalamus.
C. neo/paleo carries deep/superficial pain

answer B

Neospinothalamic tract

Fast pain(mechanical and thermal stimulation)> type Aδ fibers >/ dorsal horn of the spinal cord >synapse with the dendrites of the neospinothalamic tract>cross the midline through the anterior white commissure> contralateral anterolateral columns>/ventrobasal complex of the thalamus > synapse with the dendrites of the somatosensory cortex.

Paleospinothalamic tract

Slow pain (chemical stimulation poorly localized)>slower type C fibers > laminae II and III of the dorsal horns(substantia gelatinosa)>/lamina V> join fibers from the fast pathway>crossing to the opposite side via the anterior white commissure>anterolateral pathway>/ brain stem(1/10 stopping in the thalamus,9/10 stopping in the medulla, pons and periaqueductal grey of the midbrain tectum.

"Some question about the functions of brain cells" "new"
A. microglia have large dendritic networks
B. glia cells are only found in the cortex
C. oligodendrocytes are the only cells to form many connections in the brain
D. astrocytes are scavenger cells
E. ?Schwann cells are involved in the BBB

page 63 Ganong 22nd

  • Oligodendrocytes produce mylin
  • Schwann cells are Glia (and not in CNS so B is wrong)
  • Microglia are like macrophages with short branching processes (Ross, Romrell, Kaye HISTOLOGY 3rd Ed)
  • Astrocytes induce blood vessels to form BBB [but they also take up GABA and glutamate - is this what they are suggesting by "scavenger", or are the answers D and E misremembered??]

Physiology of Muscle & Neuromuscular Junction

Maternal, Foetal & Neonatal Physiology

Apnoea in neonates caused by 100% O2 indicates: *repeat*
A. Some retinal protective reflex.
B. Immature central oxygen chemoreceptors.
C. Tonic drive by peripheral chemo receptors.
D. Central hypercarbic depression

- I did find something about peripheral chemoreceptors being more important for reflex control of ventilation in premature neonates as opposed to term babies - but now I can't find the page I was looking at...

Answer C - look up neonates in Nunn - hmmm

From A foundation for neonatal care: a multi-disciplinary guide By Michael Hall, Alan Noble, Susan Smith (relax, despite the title they are doctors; neonatologists from Southampton, UK): Essentially the neonate is used to relative hypoxia and relative hypercarbia in utero and require time (4-6 weeks) to adjust to lashings of oxygen and less CO2 at birth. Giving a neonate 100% FiO2 essentially silences the peripheral chemoreceptors because they have a low set point. After this adjustment period, they begin to respond to higher po2 levels as per the adult. I agree with (C)

Increased cardiac output, reduced systemic vascular resistance, alkalosis and tachypnoea would be caused by ? *new*
A. pregnancy.
B. exercise.
C. altitude adaptation
D. overdose

- I'm going for altitude adaptation (decreased SVR due to the extra capillaries formed in muscles, which increases the CSA, which decreases the SVR). I was thinking pregnancy, but isn't that the only time where pH is virtually perfectly compensated (I guess if the question said respiratory alkalosis, it could still be correct, because it is compensated, but if it said alkalaemia, I think altitude).I think its A.because SVR increases at altitude.

A Incorrect - There is no or only marginal change in RR in Pregnancy (Nunn 6ed pg 230)
B Incorrect - Exercise causes acidosis which counters the alkalosis in the stem
C Sadly it is not altitude either - SVR increases with increased catecholamine (increased SVR) and HR to maintain/increase CO (Physiological Responses to Altitude) although SVR is ultimately related to tissue hypoxia(!?).
D Who knows but mild asprin overdose may cause a respir alkalosis, fever (decreased SVR). Metformin does a similar thing.

Power & Kam 2nd Ed on pregnancy pg 404 - 40% increase in TV and 10% increase in Resp rate -> compensated reps alkalosis, also pg 401 - "Total peripheral vascular resistance decreases by 30%" --- i think A is the best answer

Clinical Measurement

What best describes relative humidity? *repeat*
A. vapour content over vapour capacity.
B. saturated vapour pressure.
C. a bunch of other ratios of this and that, all of which were wrong.

(A) - Relative humidity = Actual vapour pressure / saturated vapour pressure (B) - incorrect because SVP is just that, SVP

CM37 Which is true regarding the Clarke electrode?
A. Has a Ag/AgCl cathode and a platinum anode
B. Can measure pO2 in both gas and blood sample
C. Uses a 0.6 amp polarising current
D. Is accurate despite changing temperature
E. Is calibrated using a special electrical device

CM18 Which has the highest specific heat capacity
A. Whole Blood
B. Skeletal muscle
C. Water

answer: C a: heat capacity = 3.594 J/gK b: c: Water (liquid): heat capacity = 4.1813J/gK

what about muscle? shouldn't solid have a higher heat capacity? - not at all. And muscle is probably less dense than water (which also doesn't mean anything given they have different constituents). That said, muscle could be more (anyone know?), but if it is, it's not because it's solid. No it isn't, Cant remember where but I've seen it in a text (Not P&K or Ganong and Yentis makes no mention of muscle)


Unclassified Pharm MCQs

General Pharmacology

FE34 Hypertonic fluid is used in resuscitation for:
A. increase in total body sodium.
B. reduction in viscosity.
C. improve coagulation.
D. reduce intracellular oedema.
E. rapid expansion of intravascular volume.

A drug has an ionized to unionized ratio of 100:1. If the pH is x, what is the pKa of the drug? (similar to previous question regarding lignocaine)
I remembered it as "if pKa is x, then pH is"
A. x
B. x-1
C. x+1
D. x-2
E. x+2

Acids Ionised Above pKa
Bases Ionised Below pKa

Ratios: pH-pKa =

                 -2:   99:1
                 -1:   90:10
                 -0.5: 75:25
                  0:   50:50
                  0.5: 25:75
                  1:   10:90
                  2:   1:99

Just remember the above and whether the drug is an acid or a base.

This question was, bupivacaine has pKa 8.19, if its ionised to unionised ratio was 100:1, what is the pH?
A: 5.19
B: 6.19
C: 7.96
D: 8.19
E: 10.19

As Above, Bupivicaine is a weak base, ionised below pKa (8.19)
Ratio 100:1 (or 99:1 near enough!!) means pH-pKa = -2
Therefore ph = 6.19.

GP29 Which of the following drugs cannot cross the BBB?
A. Ondansetron
B. Scopolamine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Droperidol
E. Domperidone

GP28 A drug is 30% absorbed, if hepatic extraction is 0.7, what is the oral bioavailability? (rpt)
A. 0.3
B. 0.7
C. 0.21
D. 0.09
E. 0.03

Bioavailability = Absorption X (1-HER)
Bioavailability = 0.3 X (1-0.7) = 0.09

GP31 Which is not a ligand gated channel?.
A. Alpha-2 Receptor
B. 5HT3 Receptor
C. Nicotinic cholinergic receptor
D. GABA receptor
E. ?

GP32 G proteins
A. Always have 3 subunits
B. Alpha subunit has intrinsic GTPase activity
C. One G protein only attached to one G protein coupled receptor
D. Spans membrane 7 times

Electrical events in GABA transmission
A. Presynaptically inhibits GABA-A
B. Presynaptically inhibits GABA-B
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

GABA-B is presynaptic (Katzung 10ed pg344) but I cant say for GABA-A. Actually I dont understand the stem. I suppose the presynaptic B receptor through slow component - G protein inhibit Ca++ channels or activate K channels and stops more GABA transmission to post synaptic A receptor. Therefore the answer might be A.

If the word "via" appeared in A or B then the answer would be B.

General Anaesthetics - Inhalational

IN31 Anaesthetic preconditioning...
A. Sevoflurane and propofol are equally effective
B. At least 1.0 MAC Isoflurane necessary
C. something about Adenosine receptors
D. thought to be due to closure of KATP channels
E. Opioids do not produce preconditioning

Question regarding isoflurane metabolism (old MCQ):
A. 0.2% by CYP2E1
B. 0.02%
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

Therapeutic ratio (or index) of inhalational anaesthetics such as sevoflurane and isoflurane:
A. Less than 2
B. 2 - 4
C. 4 - 8
D. 8 - 10
E. Greater than 10

General Anaesthetics - Intravenous

Question comparing CV side-effects of thiopentone and propofol. (same/similar to old MCQ)
A. ?
B. ?

Question regarding propofol clearance
A. Undergoes oxidative metabolism.
B. age/sex
C. liver blood flow
D. 10% urine metabolites
E. chronic liver disease

Propofol clearance
A. The same as hepatic blood flow
B. Increased in children
C. ? Increased/? Decreased in pregnancy
D. No change in elderly
E. Decreased in renal dysfunction

What does not occur with dose of thiopentone?
A. Decrease in cardiac output & vasodilatation
B. ?
C. Decreased in CMRO2 by 55%
D. ?
E. Wakening at increased venous (arm) concentrations of thiopentone with repeated bolusing

A. A racaemic mixture, contains mostly S isomer
B. Minimal effect on ICP
C. Theta waves ...?...
D. Something about infusions & ventilatory response to pCO2

Local Anaesthetics

See LA17 A solution of LA contains 1:200000 adrenaline. How much adrenaline has been added? (same/similar to old MCQ)
A. 5 mcg/mL
B. 50 mcg/mL
C. 500 mcg/mL
D. 0.5 mcg/mL
E. 0.05 mcg/mL

A. Not absorbed via GIT

Systemic absorption of LA given epidurally depended on all except: (old)
A. Adrenaline added
B. Intrinsic vasoconstrictor activity
C. Hepatic metabolism
D. Renal clearance

Muscle Relaxants & Antagonists

Question regarding active metabolites of the ND NMJBs (same/similar to an old MCQ).
A. Vecuronium
B. Pancuronium
C. Rocuronium
D. ?? cis/atracurium
E. ?

Definition of the ED95 (with respect to NMJBs):
A. Twitch height decreased BY 95%.
B. Twitch height decreased TO 95%.
C. Percentage paralysed is 95%.
D. Percentage not paralysed is 95%.

Best Indicator of adequate reversal of NM blockade (same/similar to an old MCQ)
A. TOFR > 50%
B. PTC of 11
C. No fade on DBS
D. No fade with tetany.
E. ?

MB39 Sugammadex binds most avidly to:
A. Pancuronium
B. Rocuronium
C. Vecuronium
D. Atracurium
E. Cisatracurium
(???was this in the paper??? I can't remember it.)

Which is the LEAST metabolised?
A. Pancuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Rocuronium
D. Atracurium
E. Cisatracurium

A. Metabolism involves 3- & 17-deacetylation
B. ?
C. ?

Mechanism of neuromuscular block of suxamethonium
A. Persistent binding on nicotinic cholinergic receptors
B. Inactivates Na+ channels
C. Direct blockade of open channel

A patient is reversed with 50mcg/kg neostigmine and 20mcg/kg atropine then develops laryngospasm and is given 1.5mg/kg suxamethonium. The most likely outcome is:
A. Decreased duration of block
B. Increased duration of block

Major Analgesics / Opioids

Question relating to pethidine:
A. Causes serotonin reuptake inhibition.
B. ?

Regarding codeine, which is false:
A. Less efficacy as an analgesic compared to equipotent doses of morphine
B. ?
C. ?
D. ?

Opioids (rpt Q)
A. Tramadol, codeine, oxycodone metabolised by CYP2D to active metabolites
B. Tramadol, codeine, hydromorphone has active metabolites

Single bolus of morhpine 10mg has longer duration of action than single bolus of fentanyl 50 mcg because morphine, when compared to fentanyl has:
A. Lower lipid solubiltiy
B. Smaller volume of distribution

A 50-100 mcg/kg dose of fentanyl (old Q)
A. Elimination half life greater than 3 hrs
B. Does not adequately supress stress response to surgery


AH07 The nerve agent sarin:
A. should not be treated with anticholinesterase if there is tachycardia
B. something about pyridostigmine
C. symptoms can include fasciculations and paralysis
D. something about pralidoxime unblocking the receptor (a red herring teaser)
E. ?
sorry not remembered well but at least you know to look up sarin in your spare time!!

Plasma cholinesterase
A. Hydrolyses succinylcholine to succinylmonocholine
B. Large amounts in red cells
C. Metabolises remifentanil

What does not cause decreased plasma cholinesterase activity?
A. Pregnancy
B. Pancuronium
C. Neotigmine
D. Frusemide

Psychotherapeutic Drugs

abc Question regarding GABA ion channels and the mechanism of action of antiepileptic drugs

Options included 5 AEDs (1 or 2 of these were 'newer' agents).
A. Lamotrigine
B. Vigabatrin
C. Phenytoin
D. Gabapentin
E. Ethosuccimide

Which ONE of these does NOT have anticonvulsant effects?
A. lorazepam
B. acetazolamide
C. phenytoin
D. primadone
E. phenindione

phenindione is anticoagulant primidone is anticonvulsant

Cardiovascular Drugs

Mechanism of action of vasopressin in septic shock include all except:
A. Potentiates action of catecholamines on blood vessels
B. Increases release of noradrenaline from the adrenal medulla
C. Preferentially vasoconstricts renal efferent arterioles to maintain GFR
D. Acts via V1 receptors
E. Opposes vasodilatory action of nitric oxide

Something about selective alpha adrenoceptor agonists
D. in carcionod treatment phenoxybenzamine used following beta-blockade.

Non-selective beta blockade causes :
A. Increased muscle blood flow.
B. Decreased uterine tone.
C. hyperglycaemia.
D. ?bronchodilation
E. ?mydriasis ?miosis

Which inotrope does not act by increasing cAMP?
A. Milrinone
B. Glucagon
C. Digoxin
D. ?
E. ?

Nitric oxide
A. ?something about PVR
B. Does not cause bronchodilatation
C. Released in response to actylcholine
D. ?
E. ?

CD49 Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of Amiodarone?

A. Pulmonary fibrosis.
B. Photosensitive rash.
C. Corneal microdeposits.
D. cardiomyopathy
E. thyrotoxicosis

Adenosine & amiodarone
A. Both class III antiarrhythmics
B. Both decrease conduction through AV node and increase refractory period
C. Both may cause hypotension, chest pain & bronchospasm with bolus dose

MCQ-30 Milrinone

A. depresses thyroid function with prolonged use
B. antiarrhythmic effects with class 3 properties
C. dose dependant increase in coronary oxygen consumption
D. exerts its effect via cAMP dependant increase in intracellular calcium
E. devoid of arrhythmic effects of catecholamines

A. increases skin temperature
B. inactivated by COMT
C. increases gastric motility
D. causes mydriasis
E. has the same duration of action as noradrenaline

1:200000 Adrenaline is equivalent to
A. 5%
B. 0.01%
C. 5mg/ml

Answer: 5mcg/ml

Endocrine Drugs

Miscellaneous Drugs

Which of the following drugs is an NMDA antagonist?
A. Dexamethasone
B. Dextropropoxyphene
C. Dextromethorphan
D. Dexmedetomidine
E. Dexamphetamine

Which of the following drugs may cause mydriasis?
A. Phenylephrine

GP37 Which one causes reversible impairment of platelet function
A. Aspirin
B. diclofenac
C. clopidogrel
D. heparin
E. warfarin

Also one about COXII
A. it is inducible with inflammation
B. ?
C. COXII inhibitors rarely cause cause gastric erosion
D. NSAIDS can ihibit the expression of COXII
caution: I think I haven't remembered this very well..

A. Impairs platelet aggregation
B. Pulmonary ?vasodilatation/?vasoconstriction

Which produces uterine contraction
A. PGF2 alpha

Gentamicin, which is false (rpt Q)
A. Causes ototoxicity
B. Causes nephrotoxicity
C. High plasma protein binding

Thiazide diuretics are not associated with
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Hypomagnesaemia
C. Hyperuricaemia
D. Hyponatraemia
E. Hypochloraemia

With regards to fresh frozen plasma, which is true?
A. Is treated to inactivate viruses
B. Contains all procoagulants excluding platelets
C. Is ineffective to treat ATIII deficiency
D. Must be crossmatched

Which of the following is a non-particulate antacid?
A. Na Citrate
B. ?
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

The minimum daily aspirin dose that causes full platelet inhibition:
A. 20mg
B. 40mg
C. 60mg
D. 100mg
E. 300mg
(I don't think 60mg was an option - I think the options were 10mg 20mg 40mg 100mg 300mg)

Statistics & Drug Trials

Power is NOT dependent on: (? repeat)
A. number of participants
B. 95% Confidence interval
C. The size of the difference
D. The variability within the samples
E. Type II error

SP20 A drug that has completed phase I trials :
A. Has been tested on humans.
I actually thought it said something like:
A. has not been tested on humans
B. next will be tested in target group
C. nothing known about PK
D. can be used in large teaching hospitals

Standard error the mean
A. Difference between population & sample mean
B. Used to derive the range which likely includes the population mean

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