PrimMCQ-Pharmacology-Jul2012

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Primary Physiology Black Bank | Primary Pharmacology Black Bank


  • This page contains PHARMACOLOGY MCQs that were on the July 2012 Primary Exam. (The Physiol MCQs are on another page)


Contents

Primary MCQ papers

Feb06 | Jul06 | Feb07 | Jul07 | Feb08 | Jul08 | Mar09 | Jul09 | Mar10 | Jul10 |

Feb11 | Aug11 | Feb12 | Jul12(Physiol) | Jul12(Pharm) | Feb13(Physiol) | Feb13(Pharm) | Feb13(NewExam) | Sep13 | Feb14 |

Aug14 | Feb15 | Aug15 | Feb16 | Aug16 |


General Pharmacology

GP40 If a drug has a Vd of 0.6L/kg, it is reasonable to assume:

A. It distributes throughout TBW, and is not lipid soluble.
B. Something about Vd equals body water volume...


GP39 G proteins

A. binds 4 sites
B. has 2 alpha subunits
C.
D.
E.


GP38 Which one is not a second messenger:

A. c-AMP
B. c-GMP
C. Ca2+
D. G Proteins
E. Nitric oxide


GP36 The units of rate constant k are?

A mg/min
B mcg/kg/min
C min
D min-1
E ml-1


Inhalational Agents

IN36Desflurane is better in obesity because (a.k.a. "Of the following, what feature of desflurane makes it most suitable for bariatric anaesthesia?)

A. mac 6.6%
B. blood:gas coefficient 0.42
C. saturated vapour pressure 669 (600mmHg?)
D. oil:water coefficient 346
E. ?


IN19 Isoflurane:

A. is a halogenated methyl ethyl ether
B. is an enantiomer of enflurane
C. has a boiling point higher than sevoflurane
D. is odourless


IN33b Metabolites of isoflurane: sounds like IN32 or IN33

A. 2% to hexafluroisopropyl
B. 0.2%
C. 0.2% via renal ?conjugation
D. 0.5% ...
E. 2% fluoride


IN10 Second gas effect seen with nitrous oxide because:

A it is used in high concentrations
B It is relatively insoluble
C Reaches equilibrium faster than the more soluble second gas
D Larger volume
E because it's MAC is additive with the other agent
F It is less soluble than the volatile it is mixed with


IN37 Mechanism of IMOBILITY with volatiles / ? specific volatile?:

A Stimulation of GABAa receptors
B
C
E Stimulation of Glycine receptors

Intravenous Anaesthetic Agents

IV26 Question about amount of thiopentone remaining in brain 30 mins after administration:

A 10%
B 20%
C 30%
D
E 40%


sounds similar to IV12Thiopentone contents

A Commercial preparation contains sodium something not carbonate
B
C
D
E ?


IV27Thiopentone is

A. antanalgesic in sub-therapeutic doses
B. ...


IV28 Propofol prefered to Thio in TIVA because

A Low therapeutic index
B T1/2 keo
C high clearance
? something about lipid solubility

also remembered as:

IV28 Propofol is suitable for long infusions mostly thanks to its:

A. low Vd
B. high clearance
C. high plasma protein binding

Local Anaesthetic Agents

Which of the following is not an esther local anaesthetic? sounds similar to LA15

A. Prilocaine
B. Procaine
C. Amethocaine

Other wrong answers



Cocaine effects are the result of sounds similar to LA01 and LA24

A. Direct sympathomimetic
B. Significant dopaminergic central effects


LA25 Something about lignocaine blocking certain channels...

A. G-prot mediated
B. Voltage gated K channels
C. Voltage gated Na channels
D. Voltage gated Ca channels
E. Voltage gated Mg channels

Muscle Relaxants and Antagonists

MB40 ED95 in regards to neuromuscular blockers means.

A Dose required to cause twitch height depression TO 95% of control value
B Dose required to cause twitch height depression OF 95% of control value
C 95% of patients will be paralysed at this dose


MB03e Which of the following is NOT metabolised by plasma cholinesterase? (new)

A. Heroin
B. Mivacurium
C. Suxamethonium
D. Remifentanil
E. Procaine


MB41 Rocuronium has a volume of distibution of 0.3l/kg. From this information you might expect?

A low lipid solubility
B high plasma protein binding
C distributed in the extracellular space
D ?


Dibucaine number in a Ea:Ea genotype is? (similar to MB32)

A 0
B 20
C 35
D 45
E 60


MB03 In pseudocholineesterase deficiency which two drugs will have a prolonged effect? (options included a combination of):

A procaine and suxamethonium
B esmolol & remi
C remifentanil &mivacurium
D something and esmolol
E something and remifentanyl


MB03f Which of the following 2 drugs are metabolised by Plasma cholinesterase:

A Remifentanil and Procaine
B Esmolol and suxamethonium
C mivacurium and ...
D procaine and suxamethonium
E...


MB42 Which of the following best describes atracurium's metabolism and clearance:

A Hoffman elimination
B Hoffman elimination and plasma esterases
C Hoffman elimination and excretion of metabolites in the urine
D Hoffman elimination and plasma esterases and excretion of metabolites in the urine
E ...


MD43 Which of the following NDMR'S are metabolized least?

A Pancuronium
B Atracurium
C Mivacurium
D ...
E

Major Analgesics and Opioids

OP31 Naloxone:

A
B
C ?well absorbed orally
D
E refractory respiratory depression may occur with a single dose


OP32 | Buprenorphine?

A Transdermal is used as an effect acute pain stategy
B Plama concentration rises rapidly when injected IV
C Maybe an option to do with its pKa
D semisynthetic derivative of thebaine
E ?

(Edit: I think option A may have read "has been used in the treatment of acute pain")


OP33 Pethidine: Which is most true regarding Pethidine:

A Pethidine affects serotonin reuptake
B Pethidine causes less nausea and vomiting than morphine
C ...
D
E

Anticholinergics / Antimuscarinics

AH08 Treatment of anticholinergic syndrome?

A Pyridostigmine
B Neostigmine
C Physostigmine
D Pralidoxime
E Atropine

Psychotherapeutic Drugs

PS18which is not true about Midazolam

A not haemodynamically stable

other options one of which was right!

Cardiovascular

CD23 Phentolamine:

A Is a selective alpha-1 antagonist
B Binds covalently to the alpha receptor
C Causes bradycardia
D Is a selective alpha-2 antagonist
E Increases cardiac output


CD50 Which of the following beta blockers have the highest bioavailability

A Propranolol
B Labetolol
C Sotalol
D Atenolol
E Metoprolol

? Carvedilol ? Esmolol I think these may have been part of the MCQ too...


Phenylephrine and metaraminol both: sounds similar to CD03 & CD29

A poor substrates for breakdown by COMT
B cause coronary vasoconstriction
C are direct acting agents
D ? increase HR ? decrease HR
E ?something about bradycardia


CD68 Ventricular fibrillation (VF) in an adult:

A lignocaine 1.5mg/kg is first line treatment
B high dose adrenaline (100mcg/kg) improves outcome in "in hospital cardiac arrest"
C bicarbonate indicated if ph< 7.2
D vasopressin increase coronary and cerebral perfusion via its action at V1 receptors
E caution with use of amiodarone as it may cause Torsades


CD16 Esmolol:

A is broken down by plasma cholinesterases.
B has significant membrane stabilising effects
C has inactive metabolites
D has minimal sympathomimetic properties
E is a selective agent


CD64 With regards to SNP toxicitity:

A treated with sodium thiosulphate
B treated with GTN
C one SNP molecule releases four CN- ions

Edit: think this also contained an incorrect answer about minimising methaemoglobin levels or something like that)


CD65 Amiodarone's physiological effect's are demonstrated on ECG as:

A increases QT interval
B Widens QRS complex


CD66 A question about Levosimendan

A ...

Endocrine Drugs

Antiemetics

MD61 Mechanism of action of ondansetron?

A blocks ligand gated ion channel
B peripheral blockade 5HT3
C blockade 5HT4
D increases amount of serotonin in CTZ

(I'm pretty sure A said cation channel)


A new antiemetic drug ?neurokinin A exert its antagonist mechanism of action via:

A Substance P ?
B ....

Miscellaneous Drugs

MD62 Which of the following is true regarding action on platelets? (new)

A. Non-selective COX inhibitors act irreversibly
B. Clopidogrel acts reversibly
C.
D. Abciximab acts reversibly
E.


MD63 Regarding warfarin?

A Affects platelet function
B Increases the action of vitamin K epoxide reductase
C ?More effective when given as an intravenous dose
D Doesn't cross the placenta.
E Peak effect 36-72 hours following dose


MD64 Phenytoin

A. Half life is 12 hours
B. Used as an antiarrythmic drug
C. Toxixity produces megaloblastic anaemia due to vitamin B12 defeciency
D.


GP41 Drug given optimally as racemic mixture:

A Noradrenaline
B Morphine
C Methadone
D Bupivacaine
E Dexmedetomidine

Statistics and Clinical Trials

which is descriptive statistic?

A. ?
B.
C.
D.
E.


A drug that has reached stage 2 of a clinical trial.

A looks for pharmacokinetic information
B to be tested on target population
C ?
D.


Meta-analysis

A more detailed study
B more data referenced
C more statistically significant result than source material
D analysis of the results of ALL trials
E pooled analysis of other study results

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