Primary MCQs-Feb2016

From Anaesthesia_MCQ
Jump to: navigation, search

Primary Physiology Black Bank | Primary Pharmacology Black Bank | ANZCA Primary Exam Reports


Primary MCQ papers

Feb06 | Jul06 | Feb07 | Jul07 | Feb08 | Jul08 | Mar09 | Jul09 | Mar10 | Jul10 |

Feb11 | Aug11 | Feb12 | Jul12(Physiol) | Jul12(Pharm) | Feb13(Physiol) | Feb13(Pharm) | Feb13(NewExam) | Sep13 | Feb14 |

Aug14 | Feb15 | Aug15 | Feb16 | Aug16 |

UPDATE 20st March: By my count, 114 questions. 
Still waiting for some others to post. 


1. 16A-1 Strong plasma ions;

A. Usually anions
B. Usually cations
C. pKa 7.4
D. Almost completely dissociate
E. Include phosphate


2. 16A-2 Blood gas machine measures which directly:

Various combinations of pH, pCO2, pO2, BE, HCO3-


3. 16A-3 ABG shows pH 7.34, HCO3- 33, PCO2 64, most likely scenario:

A. Hypoventilation for 5 minutes
B. Vomiting
C. Mountain climber after several weeks of acclimatization
D. Aspirin overdose
E. Chronic pulmonary disease


4. 16A-4 In an ABG, base excess is:

A. A measure of the amount of cellular buffers
B. Is calculated when PCO2 is 40mmHg
C. Is negative when pH is above 7.40
D. Is the difference between HCO3- measured and standard HCO3-
E. moves in the opposite direction to HCO3-


5. 16A-5 Lymph:

A. Has a higher protein content than plasma
B. Has a lower fat content than plasma
C. Has a significant amount of clotting factors
D. The gastrointestinal tract is the area with the highest protein content
E. has an insignificant proportion of lymphocytes


6. 16A-6 Magnesium:

A. The normal plasma values are 0.9-1.25mmol/L
B. Is mostly reabsorbed in the renal proximal tubules
C. Does not suppress uterine tone
D. Is a direct respiratory depressant
E. Facilitates the actions of calcium


7.

8.


9. CV28 Fastest part of conducting system:

A. Ventricle
B. Bundle of His
C. Purkinje fibres
D. Atria
E. AV node


10. 16A-10 Electrolyte disturbance associated with long PR, ST depression, T-wave inversion and U waves:

A. Hypermagnesaemia
B. Hyperkalaemia
C. Hyponatraemia
D. Hypokalaemia
E. Hypomagnesaemia


11. 16A-11 What is the pressure in a vein in the ankle of a standing adult at rest?

A. 4.5 mmHg
B. 9mmHg
C. 45mmHg
D. 90mmHg
E. 150mmHg


12. 16A-12 What is the end systolic volume of the RV in a 70kg man?

A. 20-30ml
B. 50-70ml
C. 120-130ml
D. 10-20ml
E. 40-50ml


13. 16A-13 The venous pressure in the ankle of an adult standing at rest it

A. 4.5mmHg
B. 9mmHg
C. 45mmHg
D. 90mmHg
E. 150mmHg


14. 16A-14 The volume in the right ventricle in an adult at end systole at rest is

A. 20-30ml
B. 50-70ml
C. 120-130ml
D. 10-20ml


15. 16A-15 Total peripheral resistance

A. is 17 times that of pulmonary vascular resistance
B. measured in dynes.s.cm-5
C. other stuff that was wrong


16.


17. 16A-17 Regarding the microcirculation

Some stuff about nitrodilators...can't recall the options


18. 16A-18 The arterial pulse pressure wave travels through aorta at a speed of

A. 5m/s
B. 10m/s
C. 15m/s
D. 20m/s
E. 25m/s


19.


20. CV12 Percentage contribution of atrial kick in normal resting heart

A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 70%
D. 20%
E. 50%


21.

22.

23. Question about concentrations of intracellular Vs extracellular ions

24. This included an insert of a capnogram Questions were based on its interpretation and whether it was from a mechanically or spontaneously-ventilated patient

25. 16A-25 Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding entropy monitoring?

A. uses Shannon entropy
B. used Fourier analysis
C. state entropy uses frequencies in range of ??Hz
D. response entropy uses frequencies in range of ??Hz
E. state entropy is given as a value between 0-100


26. 16A-26 Which gas cannot be measured using infrared spectroscopy

A. N2
B. Halothane
C. CO2
D. N2O
E. ?


27. 16A-27 Calcitriol (1,25 - dihydroxycholecalciferol) has the following actions

A.
B.
C.
D. Decreases osteoblastic something
E. Reabsorption of calcium and phosphate from the gastrointestinal tract


28. 16A-28 Which of these increases vasopressin (ADH) secretion?

A. Increase in arterial BP
B. Moving to erect position
C. Increased pressure veno­atria junction
D. Reduced effective oncotic pressure plasma
E. Increase ECF volume


29. Sorry ran out of time to come back!


30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39. 16-A39 Na+ and K+ are proportional on a large nerve

A. Na:K 100:1
B. Na:K 10:1
C. Na:K 1:1
D. Na:K 1:10
E. Na:K 1:100

40. AL

41. AL

42. AL


43. 16A-43 Which of the following hormonal changes best explains the changes in metabolism in burns?

A. Increased cortisol
B. Decreased glucagon
C. Decreased catecholamines
D. Decreased growth hormones
E. Increased insulin


44. 16A-44 Gas flow is less likely to be turbulent with

A. Decreased viscosity
B. Increased temperature
C. Increasing the density
D. Increasing the radius bifurcation


45. 16A-45 Which of the following is correct regarding Raman Scattering:

A. It involves the absorption and emission of specific wavelengths of light
B. It is the same as mass spectrometry
C. It can't measure the concentration of a gas
D. Can measure the concentration of gas molecules.


46. 16A-46 In regards to the effect of ANP on the kidney:

A. It acts on the proximal tubule to prevent sodium reabsorption
B. It acts on the proximal tubule to increase sodium reabsorption
C. It acts on the distal tubule to prevent sodium reabsorption
D. It acts on the loop of henle to prevent sodium reabsorption
E. It relaxes the afferent arteriole to increase GFR


47. 16A-47 Glomerulartubular feedback refers to:

A. The maintenance of the proportion reabsorbed to filtered load.
D. The matching of urine output to GFR
C. The regulation of GFR by the macula densa


48. 16A-48 Renal acid secretion is altered by changes in:

A. adrenal medullary hormone secretion
B. changes in intracellular pCO2
C. GFR
D. sodium concentration
E. tubular reabsorption


49. 16A-49 Urea

A. can be used to measure intracellular space by the dilution principle
B. responsible for 80% of renal medullary osmolality of 1400mOsm/kg
C. synthesised in the liver from ammonia
D. formation via urea cycle produces 3ATP/molecule of urea synthesised
E. reabsorption by the nephron is 20% of the filtered load


50. 16A-50 Regarding the loop of Henle in the kidney:

A. ?
B. Chloride is actively reabsorbed in the ascending loop of Henle
C. ?
D. ?
E. Tubular fluid is hypotonic to plasma at the top of the ascending limb


51. 16A-51 In hypovolaemia:

A. Sympathetic stimulation directly increases Na+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule
B. Renin is secreted by juxtamedullary nephrons
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?


52. 16A-52 Regarding the renal effects of intermittent positive pressure ventilation:

A. Na+ retention due to increased ANP release.
B. Decreased cardiac output causes oliguria.
C. ???increased venous pressure and ??increase/decreases in renal blood blow
D. ?
E. ?


53. 16A-53 Antidiuretic hormone secretion is REDUCED by

A. Nausea
B. Hypoxia
C. Dopamine
D. Alcohol
E. Hypotension


54. 16A-54 With regard to renal oxygen consumption

A. Kidney has the highest AV difference of any organ
B. Has a higher oxygen extraction ratio than myocardium
C.  ?
D. Can be measured using inulin
E. Directly proportional to active sodium reabsorption


55.

56.

57.


58. 16A-58 Patient with severe pneumonia. ABG: PO2 60mmHg, PCO2 20mmHg, pH 7.4 with Increased Respiratory rate. What is the stimulus for the increased respiratory rate in this patient?

A. PO2
B. PCO2
C. pH
D. Stimulation of J receptors
E. Fever

I remembered this question as: A patient with pneumonia has the following ABG: FiO2 50%, pH 7.5, PaO2 60mmHg, PaCO2 23 mmHg, HCO3- 33. What is the stimulus for the increased respiratory rate?

A. Hypoxaemia
B. Hypocapnoea
C. Lung J receptors
D. Hering-Breuer
E. Fever

59. OC

60. OC

61. OC


62. 16A-62 Static compliance:

A. Equals pulmonary elastance
B. Is affected by airways resistance
C. Is affected by surface tension
D. Equals chest wall and lung compliance
E. Equals pressure change divided by volume change


63.16A-63 Minute ventilation response to CO2 is NOT affected by:

A. High PO2
B. Work of breathing
C. Sleep
D. Opioids
E. Low dose volatile (0.1 MAC)


64. 16A-64 Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction is:

A. A linear response
B. Affected by bronchial blood
C. Augmented by hypervolemia
D. Affected by respiratory alkalosis but not metabolic alkalosis
E. Is neurally mediated


65. Intralipid2

66. Intralipid2

67.Hungry

68.Hungry

69.Hungry


70. 16A-70 Initial drop in temperature on induction of GA due to

A. Cold IV fluids
B. Anaesthetic gases
C. radiation to nearby cold objects
D. AV cutaneous vasodilatation
E. ?


71. 16A-71 With digoxin levels in therapeutic range, most likely to see

A. Prolonged PR
B. Long QRS
C. Long QT
D. ST-elevation
E. ?
(Option D recalled by another contributor)


72. 16A-72 When body temperature is at 33 degrees

A. 15% decrease in BMR
B. Bradycardia
C. Preserved platelet function
D. Isoelectric ECG
E. Isoelectric EEG


73. 16A-73 Which of the following about amiodarone is incorrect?

A. ?
B. Structure similar to thyroxine
C. Increased refractory period
D. Non-competitive antagonist at alpha and beta adrenoceptors
E. Renal elimination major pathway


74. 16A-74 Labetalol:

A. Alpha and beta antagonist + partial alpha agonism
B. Alpha antagonism greater than beta antagonism
C. No Alpha2 antagonism
D. ?
E. ?


75. 16A-75 Esmolol has the following properties:

A. intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)
B. high lipid solubility
C. B1 selective
D. all of the above
E. ?


76. 16A-76 Antiemetic actions of dexamethasone:

A. oedema in cells of CTZ
B. ?
C. partial antagonism of D2 receptors
D. ?
E. mechanism is not known or not yet elucidated


77. 16A-77 Which receptor is implicated in PONV?

A. D2
B. 5HT3
C. Muscarinic
D. H1
E. NK1


78. 16A-78 Sodium Nitroprusside is an unstable compound which undergoes degradation under which conditions:

A. Exposure to highly acidic plasma
B. Exposure to highly alkaline solutions
C. Exposure to plastic syringes
D. Admixture with dextrose
E. Exposure to sunlight


79. 16A-79 The best indication of a patient that is adequately treated with phenylbenzamine:

A. Complaint of nasal stuffiness
B. Postural hypotension
C. Stabilisation of blood pressure
D. Decreased haematocrit
E. Hypovolaemia


80. 16A-80 Regarding the use of vasopressin in cardiac arrest:

A. Causes vasodilation in skeletal muscle and skin
B. Half-life of 10 seconds after i.v. injection
C. Causes splanchnic vasoconstriction
D. Metabolised by the liver
E. Cannot be used with noradrenaline (norepinephrine)


81. 16A-81 Milrinone:

A. Increases contractility by increasing phosphodiesterase activity
B. Reduces pulmonary vascular resistance by inhibition of myosin light chain kinase
C. Can cause profound hypotension via nitric oxide release
D. Prolonged infusion causes thrombocytopenia
E. Causes ventricular arrhythmias by increased beta 1 activity


82. 16A-82 Regarding anticholinesterases:

A. Common side-effects include hypertension and tachycardia
B.
C. Can cause fasciculations and depolarising neuromuscular block
D. Edrophonium produces long lasting irreversible blockade of AchE
E. Neostigmine crosses the blood-brain-barrier


83.


84. 16A-84 Cryoprecipitate

A. Is approved for use in Jehovah’s Witness
B. Contains Fibringen, Factor VII and Antithrombin-III
C. Effective in the reversal of warfarin
D. Contains Fibrinogen, Factor VIII and Von WIllebrans Factor
E. Is effective in resuscitation of hypovolaemia


85. 16A-85 Epsilon-aminocaproic acid (EACA)

A. Is a synthetic activator of thrombolysis
B. Acts by directly inhibiting plasminogen activation
C. Can only be given by IV route
D. Reversal of thombolysis
E. ?


86. 16A-86 Glugacon

A. Act by antagonizing beta adrenoceptors
B. Causes hyperkalaemia
C. ?
D. Enhances release of catecholamines
E. Is effective in treating chronic hypoglycemia


87. 16A-87 Which drug increases gastric emptying

A: Omeprazole
B: Atropine
C: Domperidone
D: Midazolam
E: Prochlorperazine


88. 16A-88 Glycerol is added to propofol to?

A: Alter its pH
B: Alter its osmolality
C: Prevent bacterial contamination
D: As an emulsifying agent
E:

(Not the correct wording of the answers)


89. 16A-89 Which of these is not presented as a racemic mixture?

A Bupivicaine
B Isoflurane
C Lignocaine
D Enflurane
E Ketamine


90. Malignant hyperthermia

91. Malignant hyperthermia

92. Malignant hyperthermia


93. 16A-93 What is the rationale for using a decreased dose of propofol for infusion in the elderly?

A Increased sensitivity to central effects
B Decreased Vd
C Decreased clearance
D ?
E ?

Alternatively recalled (originally 16A-x10) - ?In elderly, less dose of propofol is required because:

A. Less plasma protein binding
B. Smaller central compartment volume
C. Brain is more sensitive to propofol
(cannot remember the other options)


94. 16A-94 Regarding T1/2 in 1 compartmental model

A Directly proportional to Vd
B Directly proportional to clearance
C Dependent on plasma concentration of the drug
D ?
E ?


95. 16A-95 In a single compartment pharmacokinetic model. Half life is

A. Proportional to volume of distribution
B. Proportional to clearance
C. Longer than the time constant
D. ?
E. ?


96. 16A-96 Context sensitive half time is

A. The time for total body drug concentration to decrease by 50% after stopping infusion
B The time for plasma concentration to decrease by 50% after stopping infusion
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?


97. 16A-97 Regarding transdermal drug delivery

A. Useful for drugs with high first pass metabolism
B. ?Dependant on molecular weight of the drug
C. ?Dependant on lipid solubility of the drug
D. ?Something about keratin and drug hydro/lipophilic
E. ?


98. 16A-98 Polar substances (?or molecules?):

a. Cross lipid membranes easily
b. Have rapid onset
c. Have low protein binding
d. ?
e. Are generally larger (?or smaller?) than their non-polar counterparts


99. 16A-99 Enoxaparin is dose-reduced in severe renal impairment because:

a. High/low levels of circulating Factor X
b. Uraemia increases activity of anti-thrombin III
c. Less drug is secreted at the distal tubule
d. Renal heparinises usually account for 30% of metabolism
e. Less free drug is filtered at glomerulus


100. 16A-100 Neonate has

A. 85%TBW
B.
C.
D.
E.


101. 16A-101 Serotonin causes

A. Bronchodilation
B. Increased gastric motility ?
C. Platelet contraction ?
D.
E.


102. 16A-102Regarding Inhalational anaesthetic Sevoflurane:

A. Chloride and Fluride ions in structure
B. Vapour pressure more than Desflurane at 20 deg
C. Higher fat solubility than Des
D. Lower blood solubility than Des
E. ? More significant heart rate changes..


103. 16A-103 Regarding Inhalational anaesthetic Nitrous Oxide

A. supports combustion of flammable agents
B. critical temperature 32 deg C
C. vapour pressure 51 atm at 20 deg C
D. no significant effect on ? cardiovascular system
E. ? made from ammonium sulphate


104. 16A-104 Volatiles anaesthetics act at which anatomic site?

A. Hippocampus
B. Thalamus
C. Vasomotor Cortex
D. Spinal Motor Neurones
E. Cerebral Cortex


105. 16A-105 In a healthy adult, MAC awake for halothane is?

A. 0.1% vol
B. 0.3% vol
C. 0.6% vol
D. 0.8% vol
E. 1.0% vol

NB. I remembered this question as the MAC awake for isoflurane. Anyone else remember?


106. 16A-106 Desflurane is not used in a closed head injury because?

A. It decreases cerebral blood flow
B. It increases epileptiform EEG activity
C. It increases ICP
D. It increases CMRO2
E. ? increases MAP


107. 16A-107 After prolonged anaesthesia, elevation in arterial carboxy-Hb can be caused by soda lime that:

A. is too cold
B. has reduced amount of potassium hydroxide
C. is too dry
D. is too wet
E. has reduced amount of sodium hydroxide


108. 16A-108 Ketamine

A. Is a non competitive NMDA and 5 HT receptor antagonist
B. Psychomimetic effects are mediated by the effect on kappa opiod receptors
C. ?


109. 16A-109 Ketamine

A. Weak bronchodilator effect
B. Mainly works as a spinal anaesthetic
C. Analgesic at subanaesthetic doses
D. ?
E. Reduces bronchial secretions


110.Dantrolene

111.Dantrolene

112.Dantrolene


113. 16A-113 STP

A. Has a quicker blood:brain equilibrium time than Propofol
B. Has greater amnesic properties than Diazepam
C. Increases Cl- conductance at the post synaptic membrane
D. Has predominantly inactivate metabolites
E. Has a quicker offset than Methexitone


114. 16A-114 Lignocaine

A. Over 50% unionised at pH 7.4
B. Metabolism is dependent on liver blood flow
C. ...
D. ...
E. ...


115. 16A-115 Clonidine in peripheral nerve block

A. Inhibits C-fibres and A delta
B. Spinal blocking effects
C. Supraspinal blocking effects
D. Not used in regional
E. Provides not analgesic effects


116. FE08 Hartmann's solution:

A. 154 mmol/L Na+
B. 2 mmol/L Ca++
C. Osmolarity 308mosmol/L
D. 154 mmol/L Cl­-
E. 3 mmol/L Mg++


117. 16A-117What is the protein binding of lignocaine?

A. 40%
B.70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
E. 25%


118. 16A-118 EMLA cream

A. contains procaine
B. always causes methaemoglobinaemia in neonates
C. Should be used on cracked skin
D. 5% formulation
E. Causes vasodilation

Alt: EMLA cream is

A. Lignocaine and procaine combined
B. In neonates always causes methaemogloinaema at bad levels
C. ?
D. Total of 5% local anaesthetic concentration
E. Causes vasodilation


119. Cephazolin (repeat: see 14B-117)

A. is a third generation cephalosporin
B. doesn’t penetrate the blood brain barrier so cannot be used for neurosurgery
C. only covers gram-positive cocci
D. is a potent bactericidal agent
E. does not require dose adjustment in renal impairment


120.TMG

121.TMG


122. 16A-122 Plasma cholinesterase/ pseudocholinesterase

A. something about a dibucaine number of 80
B: Is increased in neonate compared to adult
C. increases in concentration in third trimester pregnancy
D. metabolises mivacurium
E. metabolises lignocaine


123. 16A-123 Which of the following is characteristic of phase 1 neuromuscular block?

A. TOF ratio <0.7
B. Initial increased sodium permeability at the postjunctional membrane
C. Antagonized by neostigmine
D. Majority of acetylcholine receptors in desensitized state
E. Potentiated by hypomagnaesaemia


124. 16A-124 Which of these does NOT occur with first generation antihistamines?

A. Sedative actions
B. Antinausea and antiemetic actions
C. Antiparkinsons effects
D. Anticholinergic actions
E. Beta adrenergic blocking actions


125. 16A-125 Which of the following crosses the blood brain barrier

A.
B. Propranolol
C. Dopamine
D. Edrophonium
E. Suxamethonium


126.cjb

127.cjb

128.cjb

129. 16A-129 Aspirin

A binds stronger to albumin than salicylic acid
B displaces warfarin from its binding site
C bioavailability increases with food
D regularly crosses the BBB to cause its effect
E must be hydrolysed to salicylic acid to have its effect

130. 16A-130 Which tocolytic doesn't work by changing intracellular calcium?

A. B2 adrenoreceptor agonists
B.
C. NSAIDs
D. Mg
E.


131. 16A-131 Which is a potential adverse effect of ergometrine?

A. Hypotension
B. Stroke
C. Bronchospasm
D.
E.


132. 16A-132 Something about morphine metabolism

A. 30% is metabolised to morphine-3-glucuronide
B. 60% is metabolised to morphine-6-glucuronide
C. codeine is a metabolite
D. something about renal excretion
E.


133. 16A-133 Opioids effects except which of the following

A. Decreased GIT motility
B. Decreased GIT secretion
C. Increased circular muscle contraction
D. Increased GIT absorption
E. Nausea and vomiting


134. 16A-134 One mg of alfentanil is administered to a pregnant woman at term for induction of anaesthesia prior to a caesarean section. What percentage of unionised drug (of alfentanil) will be present in the fetal blood?

A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 50%
D. 90%
E. 99%


135. TE

136. TE


137. 16A-137 Inhalation analgesia

A. Don't use methoxyflurane for burns
B. N2O good for bowel obstruction
C. Vit B6 supplement needed for N2O
D. Methoxyflurane use limited by nephrotoxicity
E. Pernicious anaemia not an issue with N2O


138. 16A-138 NMDA receptors

A. Stimulated by ketamine
B. Needs glutamate for activation
C. Facilitated by magnesium
D. Present pre & post synaptically
E. Blocked by methadone


139. 16A-139 Opioids (repeat)

A. phenylpiperidines - hepatic metabolism
B. Morphine, tramadol, hydromorphone all have active metabolites
C. Codeine, oxycodone & tramadol metabolised by CYP 2D6 to active metabolites
D. Morphine metabolite M6G = 60%
E. ?


140. 16A-140 In regards to the pulmonary circulation:

A. Calcium channel blockers cause vasoconstriction
B. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors cause vasoconstriction
C. Inhaled prostacyclin (PGI2) causes vasodilation without systemic effects
D. Inhaled NO increases ventilation to less well perfused regions
E. ?

141. 16A-141 Muscarinic receptors:

A. M1 activation decreases potassium flux in the neuron
B. M1 activation decreases gastric acid synthesis
C. M (something) increases intracellular cAMP
D. M2 selectively blocked by pirenzapine
E. ?

142. 16A-142 Intravenous clonidine

A. May cause HTN and tachycardia
B. May cause bradycardia
C. Same dose given orally is less effective compared to IV
D. Effective at inhibiting the symapthomimetic response to phaeochromocytoma manipulation
E. Antegrade amnesia to the same extent as diazepam


143. 16A-143 The bronchial arteries

A. Supply the parietal pleura
B. Supply connective tissue of the bronchi (or lung??)
C. branch off the carotid arteries
D. two left bronchial arteries branch off the posterior aorta
E. ummm 4/5 isn't too bad on anatomy question right--- pretty sure it was the obviously wrong one


144. 16A-144 Which is incorrect regarding the trachea

A. Runs posterior to the aorta
B. Posterior folds of connective tissue
C. Anterior to some branch of an artery????
D. pseudostratified columnar epithelium
E. Bifurcates at the level of T2
NOTE: The artery referred to in option C was the brachiocephalic artery


145. A

146. A

147. DVS

148. DVS


149.16A-149 A Line Isolation Monitor

A. interrupts the circuit if detects current leakage
B. will protect from microshock
C. is necessary and sufficient for a body protected area
D. is necessary and sufficient for a cardiac protected area
E. intermittently creates single fault conditions


150. 16A-150 Sterilisation

A. Removal of micro­organisms and unwanted matter from contaminated materials
B. Prevention of microbial contamination
C. Complete destruction of all microorganisms including spores
D. Inactivation of non­sporing organisms using thermal or chemical means
E. Occurs before decontamination and sterilisation


Numbers not recalled

If there are any others that you can recall,
even if small parts of a question,
place it in this section and hopefully others remember remaining parts.


16A-x1 Receptor in post operative nausea and vomiting

A. N1
B. D2
C. SHT3
D. H1
E. M2

16A-x2: Lungs are involved in

A. Inactivation serotonin
B. Activation of noradrenalin
C. Inactivation of ADH
D. Activation of bradykinin


16A-x3 ->same as 118

16A-x4 Blood gas analyser directly measures:

A. PCO2, bicarbonate, PO2, BE, pH
B. bicarbonate, PCO2, pH
C. BE, pH, PO2, PCO2
D. PO2, pH, PCO2
E. PO2, PCO2, bicarbonate


16A-x5 The bronchial artery supplies:

A. Larynx and pharynx only
B. Two branches to left lung
C. Passes anterior to the aorta
D. Passes posterior to oesophagus
E. Supplies parietal pleura
  • Addition to above bronchial artery question, I'm pretty sure that there was an option: Supplies lung connective tissue
  • Another addition - I think one of the options involved two branches off aorta to supply left lung


16A-x6 A Line isolation monitor

A. Protects against microshock
B. protects against macroshock
C. is necessary and sufficient to make a body protected area
D. is necessary and sufficient to make a cardiac protected area
E. Intermittently creates faults to test system integrity


16A-x7 Which is NOT an absolute contraindication to propofol?

A. Egg allergy
B. Hypersensitivity to soya bean oil
C. Hypersensitivity to intralipid
D. Hypersensitivity to propofol
E. Disordered fat metabolism


16A-x8 In anaesthetic practice following side-effect of propofol is NOT a concern:

A. bradycardia
B. hypotension
C. apnoea
D. High calorie load
E. Lactic acidosis


16A-x9 Carbon monoxide (CO) is diffusion limited because:

A. It rapidly enters the red blood cells
B. It's passage is limited by the alveolar-gas membrane, therefore it is diffusion limited
C. It's so soluble that only a diffusion problem could limit its passage
D.
E.


16A-x10 - Combined with 16A-93


16A-x11 Following airway pressure trace indicates:

{Picture showing ventilator pressure vs. time curve (ramping up appearance of trace)}

A. Pressure controlled ventilation
B. Volume controlled ventilation
C. Spontaneous ventilation

(Can't remember other options)


16A-x12 Serotonin

A. Synthesised from tyrosine (this was the incorrect option, but I can't remember the rest)

16A-x13 Picture showing log dose - response curves of 3 drugs A,B and C Drug A had higher potency but lower efficacy than B and C (curve was located most left), drug B had 100% efficacy and was located in the middle, drug C had 100% efficacy and was located most right

Options were:

A. drug A is partial agonist
B. drug B less potent than C
C. drug B is competitive antagonist

(Can't remember the rest)


16A-x14 A molecule of haemoglobin contains

A. 4 porphyrin rings and 2 ferrous ions
B. 4 porphyrin rings and 4 ferric ions
C. 2 porphyrin rings and 2 ferric ions
D. 4 porphyrin rings and 4 ferrous ions
E. 4 porphyrin rings and 2 ferric ions


16A-x15 There was a questions about RMP (Can't remember the exact wording) but something like: At RMP, the ratio of Na:K is:

A. 10:1
B. 75:75
C. 50:50
D. 25:75
E. 1:10

(Maybe somebody else can remember the exact wording)

Personal tools
Namespaces
Variants
Actions
Navigation
MCQs
Toolbox