Primary MCQs-Feb2016
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UPDATE 20st March: By my count, 114 questions. Still waiting for some others to post.
1. 16A-1 Strong plasma ions;
- A. Usually anions
- B. Usually cations
- C. pKa 7.4
- D. Almost completely dissociate
- E. Include phosphate
2. 16A-2 Blood gas machine measures which directly:
- Various combinations of pH, pCO2, pO2, BE, HCO3-
3. 16A-3 ABG shows pH 7.34, HCO3- 33, PCO2 64, most likely scenario:
- A. Hypoventilation for 5 minutes
- B. Vomiting
- C. Mountain climber after several weeks of acclimatization
- D. Aspirin overdose
- E. Chronic pulmonary disease
4. 16A-4 In an ABG, base excess is:
- A. A measure of the amount of cellular buffers
- B. Is calculated when PCO2 is 40mmHg
- C. Is negative when pH is above 7.40
- D. Is the difference between HCO3- measured and standard HCO3-
- E. moves in the opposite direction to HCO3-
5. 16A-5 Lymph:
- A. Has a higher protein content than plasma
- B. Has a lower fat content than plasma
- C. Has a significant amount of clotting factors
- D. The gastrointestinal tract is the area with the highest protein content
- E. has an insignificant proportion of lymphocytes
6. 16A-6 Magnesium:
- A. The normal plasma values are 0.9-1.25mmol/L
- B. Is mostly reabsorbed in the renal proximal tubules
- C. Does not suppress uterine tone
- D. Is a direct respiratory depressant
- E. Facilitates the actions of calcium
7.
8.
9. CV28 Fastest part of conducting system:
- A. Ventricle
- B. Bundle of His
- C. Purkinje fibres
- D. Atria
- E. AV node
10. 16A-10 Electrolyte disturbance associated with long PR, ST depression, T-wave inversion and U waves:
- A. Hypermagnesaemia
- B. Hyperkalaemia
- C. Hyponatraemia
- D. Hypokalaemia
- E. Hypomagnesaemia
11. 16A-11 What is the pressure in a vein in the ankle of a standing adult at rest?
- A. 4.5 mmHg
- B. 9mmHg
- C. 45mmHg
- D. 90mmHg
- E. 150mmHg
12. 16A-12 What is the end systolic volume of the RV in a 70kg man?
- A. 20-30ml
- B. 50-70ml
- C. 120-130ml
- D. 10-20ml
- E. 40-50ml
13. 16A-13 The venous pressure in the ankle of an adult standing at rest it
- A. 4.5mmHg
- B. 9mmHg
- C. 45mmHg
- D. 90mmHg
- E. 150mmHg
14. 16A-14 The volume in the right ventricle in an adult at end systole at rest is
- A. 20-30ml
- B. 50-70ml
- C. 120-130ml
- D. 10-20ml
15. 16A-15 Total peripheral resistance
- A. is 17 times that of pulmonary vascular resistance
- B. measured in dynes.s.cm-5
- C. other stuff that was wrong
16.
17. 16A-17 Regarding the microcirculation
- Some stuff about nitrodilators...can't recall the options
18. 16A-18 The arterial pulse pressure wave travels through aorta at a speed of
- A. 5m/s
- B. 10m/s
- C. 15m/s
- D. 20m/s
- E. 25m/s
19.
20. CV12 Percentage contribution of atrial kick in normal resting heart
- A. 10%
- B. 30%
- C. 70%
- D. 20%
- E. 50%
21.
22.
23. Question about concentrations of intracellular Vs extracellular ions
24. This included an insert of a capnogram Questions were based on its interpretation and whether it was from a mechanically or spontaneously-ventilated patient
25. 16A-25 Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding entropy monitoring?
- A. uses Shannon entropy
- B. used Fourier analysis
- C. state entropy uses frequencies in range of ??Hz
- D. response entropy uses frequencies in range of ??Hz
- E. state entropy is given as a value between 0-100
26. 16A-26 Which gas cannot be measured using infrared spectroscopy
- A. N2
- B. Halothane
- C. CO2
- D. N2O
- E. ?
27. 16A-27 Calcitriol (1,25 - dihydroxycholecalciferol) has the following actions
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D. Decreases osteoblastic something
- E. Reabsorption of calcium and phosphate from the gastrointestinal tract
28. 16A-28 Which of these increases vasopressin (ADH) secretion?
- A. Increase in arterial BP
- B. Moving to erect position
- C. Increased pressure venoatria junction
- D. Reduced effective oncotic pressure plasma
- E. Increase ECF volume
29. Sorry ran out of time to come back!
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39. 16-A39 Na+ and K+ are proportional on a large nerve
- A. Na:K 100:1
- B. Na:K 10:1
- C. Na:K 1:1
- D. Na:K 1:10
- E. Na:K 1:100
40. AL
41. AL
42. AL
43. 16A-43 Which of the following hormonal changes best explains the changes in metabolism in burns?
- A. Increased cortisol
- B. Decreased glucagon
- C. Decreased catecholamines
- D. Decreased growth hormones
- E. Increased insulin
44. 16A-44 Gas flow is less likely to be turbulent with
- A. Decreased viscosity
- B. Increased temperature
- C. Increasing the density
- D. Increasing the radius bifurcation
45. 16A-45 Which of the following is correct regarding Raman Scattering:
- A. It involves the absorption and emission of specific wavelengths of light
- B. It is the same as mass spectrometry
- C. It can't measure the concentration of a gas
- D. Can measure the concentration of gas molecules.
46. 16A-46 In regards to the effect of ANP on the kidney:
- A. It acts on the proximal tubule to prevent sodium reabsorption
- B. It acts on the proximal tubule to increase sodium reabsorption
- C. It acts on the distal tubule to prevent sodium reabsorption
- D. It acts on the loop of henle to prevent sodium reabsorption
- E. It relaxes the afferent arteriole to increase GFR
47. 16A-47 Glomerulartubular feedback refers to:
- A. The maintenance of the proportion reabsorbed to filtered load.
- D. The matching of urine output to GFR
- C. The regulation of GFR by the macula densa
48. 16A-48 Renal acid secretion is altered by changes in:
- A. adrenal medullary hormone secretion
- B. changes in intracellular pCO2
- C. GFR
- D. sodium concentration
- E. tubular reabsorption
49. 16A-49 Urea
- A. can be used to measure intracellular space by the dilution principle
- B. responsible for 80% of renal medullary osmolality of 1400mOsm/kg
- C. synthesised in the liver from ammonia
- D. formation via urea cycle produces 3ATP/molecule of urea synthesised
- E. reabsorption by the nephron is 20% of the filtered load
50. 16A-50 Regarding the loop of Henle in the kidney:
- A. ?
- B. Chloride is actively reabsorbed in the ascending loop of Henle
- C. ?
- D. ?
- E. Tubular fluid is hypotonic to plasma at the top of the ascending limb
51. 16A-51 In hypovolaemia:
- A. Sympathetic stimulation directly increases Na+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule
- B. Renin is secreted by juxtamedullary nephrons
- C. ?
- D. ?
- E. ?
52. 16A-52 Regarding the renal effects of intermittent positive pressure ventilation:
- A. Na+ retention due to increased ANP release.
- B. Decreased cardiac output causes oliguria.
- C. ???increased venous pressure and ??increase/decreases in renal blood blow
- D. ?
- E. ?
53. 16A-53 Antidiuretic hormone secretion is REDUCED by
- A. Nausea
- B. Hypoxia
- C. Dopamine
- D. Alcohol
- E. Hypotension
54. 16A-54 With regard to renal oxygen consumption
- A. Kidney has the highest AV difference of any organ
- B. Has a higher oxygen extraction ratio than myocardium
- C. ?
- D. Can be measured using inulin
- E. Directly proportional to active sodium reabsorption
55.
56.
57.
58. 16A-58 Patient with severe pneumonia. ABG: PO2 60mmHg, PCO2 20mmHg, pH 7.4 with Increased Respiratory rate. What is the stimulus for the increased respiratory rate in this patient?
- A. PO2
- B. PCO2
- C. pH
- D. Stimulation of J receptors
- E. Fever
I remembered this question as: A patient with pneumonia has the following ABG: FiO2 50%, pH 7.5, PaO2 60mmHg, PaCO2 23 mmHg, HCO3- 33. What is the stimulus for the increased respiratory rate?
- A. Hypoxaemia
- B. Hypocapnoea
- C. Lung J receptors
- D. Hering-Breuer
- E. Fever
59. OC
60. OC
61. OC
62. 16A-62 Static compliance:
- A. Equals pulmonary elastance
- B. Is affected by airways resistance
- C. Is affected by surface tension
- D. Equals chest wall and lung compliance
- E. Equals pressure change divided by volume change
63.16A-63 Minute ventilation response to CO2 is NOT affected by:
- A. High PO2
- B. Work of breathing
- C. Sleep
- D. Opioids
- E. Low dose volatile (0.1 MAC)
64. 16A-64 Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction is:
- A. A linear response
- B. Affected by bronchial blood
- C. Augmented by hypervolemia
- D. Affected by respiratory alkalosis but not metabolic alkalosis
- E. Is neurally mediated
65. Intralipid2
66. Intralipid2
67.Hungry
68.Hungry
69.Hungry
70. 16A-70 Initial drop in temperature on induction of GA due to
- A. Cold IV fluids
- B. Anaesthetic gases
- C. radiation to nearby cold objects
- D. AV cutaneous vasodilatation
- E. ?
71. 16A-71 With digoxin levels in therapeutic range, most likely to see
- A. Prolonged PR
- B. Long QRS
- C. Long QT
- D. ST-elevation
- E. ?
- (Option D recalled by another contributor)
72. 16A-72 When body temperature is at 33 degrees
- A. 15% decrease in BMR
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Preserved platelet function
- D. Isoelectric ECG
- E. Isoelectric EEG
73. 16A-73 Which of the following about amiodarone is incorrect?
- A. ?
- B. Structure similar to thyroxine
- C. Increased refractory period
- D. Non-competitive antagonist at alpha and beta adrenoceptors
- E. Renal elimination major pathway
74. 16A-74 Labetalol:
- A. Alpha and beta antagonist + partial alpha agonism
- B. Alpha antagonism greater than beta antagonism
- C. No Alpha2 antagonism
- D. ?
- E. ?
75. 16A-75 Esmolol has the following properties:
- A. intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)
- B. high lipid solubility
- C. B1 selective
- D. all of the above
- E. ?
76. 16A-76 Antiemetic actions of dexamethasone:
- A. oedema in cells of CTZ
- B. ?
- C. partial antagonism of D2 receptors
- D. ?
- E. mechanism is not known or not yet elucidated
77. 16A-77 Which receptor is implicated in PONV?
- A. D2
- B. 5HT3
- C. Muscarinic
- D. H1
- E. NK1
78. 16A-78 Sodium Nitroprusside is an unstable compound which undergoes degradation under which conditions:
- A. Exposure to highly acidic plasma
- B. Exposure to highly alkaline solutions
- C. Exposure to plastic syringes
- D. Admixture with dextrose
- E. Exposure to sunlight
79. 16A-79 The best indication of a patient that is adequately treated with phenylbenzamine:
- A. Complaint of nasal stuffiness
- B. Postural hypotension
- C. Stabilisation of blood pressure
- D. Decreased haematocrit
- E. Hypovolaemia
80. 16A-80 Regarding the use of vasopressin in cardiac arrest:
- A. Causes vasodilation in skeletal muscle and skin
- B. Half-life of 10 seconds after i.v. injection
- C. Causes splanchnic vasoconstriction
- D. Metabolised by the liver
- E. Cannot be used with noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
81. 16A-81 Milrinone:
- A. Increases contractility by increasing phosphodiesterase activity
- B. Reduces pulmonary vascular resistance by inhibition of myosin light chain kinase
- C. Can cause profound hypotension via nitric oxide release
- D. Prolonged infusion causes thrombocytopenia
- E. Causes ventricular arrhythmias by increased beta 1 activity
82. 16A-82 Regarding anticholinesterases:
- A. Common side-effects include hypertension and tachycardia
- B.
- C. Can cause fasciculations and depolarising neuromuscular block
- D. Edrophonium produces long lasting irreversible blockade of AchE
- E. Neostigmine crosses the blood-brain-barrier
83.
84. 16A-84 Cryoprecipitate
- A. Is approved for use in Jehovah’s Witness
- B. Contains Fibringen, Factor VII and Antithrombin-III
- C. Effective in the reversal of warfarin
- D. Contains Fibrinogen, Factor VIII and Von WIllebrans Factor
- E. Is effective in resuscitation of hypovolaemia
85. 16A-85 Epsilon-aminocaproic acid (EACA)
- A. Is a synthetic activator of thrombolysis
- B. Acts by directly inhibiting plasminogen activation
- C. Can only be given by IV route
- D. Reversal of thombolysis
- E. ?
86. 16A-86 Glugacon
- A. Act by antagonizing beta adrenoceptors
- B. Causes hyperkalaemia
- C. ?
- D. Enhances release of catecholamines
- E. Is effective in treating chronic hypoglycemia
87. 16A-87 Which drug increases gastric emptying
- A: Omeprazole
- B: Atropine
- C: Domperidone
- D: Midazolam
- E: Prochlorperazine
88. 16A-88 Glycerol is added to propofol to?
- A: Alter its pH
- B: Alter its osmolality
- C: Prevent bacterial contamination
- D: As an emulsifying agent
- E:
(Not the correct wording of the answers)
89. 16A-89 Which of these is not presented as a racemic mixture?
- A Bupivicaine
- B Isoflurane
- C Lignocaine
- D Enflurane
- E Ketamine
90. Malignant hyperthermia
91. Malignant hyperthermia
92. Malignant hyperthermia
93. 16A-93 What is the rationale for using a decreased dose of propofol for infusion in the elderly?
- A Increased sensitivity to central effects
- B Decreased Vd
- C Decreased clearance
- D ?
- E ?
Alternatively recalled (originally 16A-x10) - ?In elderly, less dose of propofol is required because:
- A. Less plasma protein binding
- B. Smaller central compartment volume
- C. Brain is more sensitive to propofol
- (cannot remember the other options)
94. 16A-94 Regarding T1/2 in 1 compartmental model
- A Directly proportional to Vd
- B Directly proportional to clearance
- C Dependent on plasma concentration of the drug
- D ?
- E ?
95. 16A-95 In a single compartment pharmacokinetic model. Half life is
- A. Proportional to volume of distribution
- B. Proportional to clearance
- C. Longer than the time constant
- D. ?
- E. ?
96. 16A-96 Context sensitive half time is
- A. The time for total body drug concentration to decrease by 50% after stopping infusion
- B The time for plasma concentration to decrease by 50% after stopping infusion
- C. ?
- D. ?
- E. ?
97. 16A-97 Regarding transdermal drug delivery
- A. Useful for drugs with high first pass metabolism
- B. ?Dependant on molecular weight of the drug
- C. ?Dependant on lipid solubility of the drug
- D. ?Something about keratin and drug hydro/lipophilic
- E. ?
98. 16A-98 Polar substances (?or molecules?):
- a. Cross lipid membranes easily
- b. Have rapid onset
- c. Have low protein binding
- d. ?
- e. Are generally larger (?or smaller?) than their non-polar counterparts
99. 16A-99 Enoxaparin is dose-reduced in severe renal impairment because:
- a. High/low levels of circulating Factor X
- b. Uraemia increases activity of anti-thrombin III
- c. Less drug is secreted at the distal tubule
- d. Renal heparinises usually account for 30% of metabolism
- e. Less free drug is filtered at glomerulus
100. 16A-100 Neonate has
- A. 85%TBW
- B.
- C.
- D.
- E.
101. 16A-101 Serotonin causes
- A. Bronchodilation
- B. Increased gastric motility ?
- C. Platelet contraction ?
- D.
- E.
102. 16A-102Regarding Inhalational anaesthetic Sevoflurane:
- A. Chloride and Fluride ions in structure
- B. Vapour pressure more than Desflurane at 20 deg
- C. Higher fat solubility than Des
- D. Lower blood solubility than Des
- E. ? More significant heart rate changes..
103. 16A-103 Regarding Inhalational anaesthetic Nitrous Oxide
- A. supports combustion of flammable agents
- B. critical temperature 32 deg C
- C. vapour pressure 51 atm at 20 deg C
- D. no significant effect on ? cardiovascular system
- E. ? made from ammonium sulphate
104. 16A-104 Volatiles anaesthetics act at which anatomic site?
- A. Hippocampus
- B. Thalamus
- C. Vasomotor Cortex
- D. Spinal Motor Neurones
- E. Cerebral Cortex
105. 16A-105 In a healthy adult, MAC awake for halothane is?
- A. 0.1% vol
- B. 0.3% vol
- C. 0.6% vol
- D. 0.8% vol
- E. 1.0% vol
NB. I remembered this question as the MAC awake for isoflurane. Anyone else remember?
106. 16A-106 Desflurane is not used in a closed head injury because?
- A. It decreases cerebral blood flow
- B. It increases epileptiform EEG activity
- C. It increases ICP
- D. It increases CMRO2
- E. ? increases MAP
107. 16A-107 After prolonged anaesthesia, elevation in arterial carboxy-Hb can be caused by soda lime that:
- A. is too cold
- B. has reduced amount of potassium hydroxide
- C. is too dry
- D. is too wet
- E. has reduced amount of sodium hydroxide
108. 16A-108 Ketamine
- A. Is a non competitive NMDA and 5 HT receptor antagonist
- B. Psychomimetic effects are mediated by the effect on kappa opiod receptors
- C. ?
109. 16A-109 Ketamine
- A. Weak bronchodilator effect
- B. Mainly works as a spinal anaesthetic
- C. Analgesic at subanaesthetic doses
- D. ?
- E. Reduces bronchial secretions
110.Dantrolene
111.Dantrolene
112.Dantrolene
113. 16A-113 STP
- A. Has a quicker blood:brain equilibrium time than Propofol
- B. Has greater amnesic properties than Diazepam
- C. Increases Cl- conductance at the post synaptic membrane
- D. Has predominantly inactivate metabolites
- E. Has a quicker offset than Methexitone
114. 16A-114 Lignocaine
- A. Over 50% unionised at pH 7.4
- B. Metabolism is dependent on liver blood flow
- C. ...
- D. ...
- E. ...
115. 16A-115 Clonidine in peripheral nerve block
- A. Inhibits C-fibres and A delta
- B. Spinal blocking effects
- C. Supraspinal blocking effects
- D. Not used in regional
- E. Provides not analgesic effects
116. FE08 Hartmann's solution:
- A. 154 mmol/L Na+
- B. 2 mmol/L Ca++
- C. Osmolarity 308mosmol/L
- D. 154 mmol/L Cl-
- E. 3 mmol/L Mg++
117. 16A-117What is the protein binding of lignocaine?
- A. 40%
- B.70%
- C. 80%
- D. 90%
- E. 25%
- A. contains procaine
- B. always causes methaemoglobinaemia in neonates
- C. Should be used on cracked skin
- D. 5% formulation
- E. Causes vasodilation
Alt: EMLA cream is
- A. Lignocaine and procaine combined
- B. In neonates always causes methaemogloinaema at bad levels
- C. ?
- D. Total of 5% local anaesthetic concentration
- E. Causes vasodilation
119. Cephazolin (repeat: see 14B-117)
- A. is a third generation cephalosporin
- B. doesn’t penetrate the blood brain barrier so cannot be used for neurosurgery
- C. only covers gram-positive cocci
- D. is a potent bactericidal agent
- E. does not require dose adjustment in renal impairment
120.TMG
121.TMG
122. 16A-122 Plasma cholinesterase/ pseudocholinesterase
- A. something about a dibucaine number of 80
- B: Is increased in neonate compared to adult
- C. increases in concentration in third trimester pregnancy
- D. metabolises mivacurium
- E. metabolises lignocaine
123. 16A-123 Which of the following is characteristic of phase 1 neuromuscular block?
- A. TOF ratio <0.7
- B. Initial increased sodium permeability at the postjunctional membrane
- C. Antagonized by neostigmine
- D. Majority of acetylcholine receptors in desensitized state
- E. Potentiated by hypomagnaesaemia
124. 16A-124 Which of these does NOT occur with first generation antihistamines?
- A. Sedative actions
- B. Antinausea and antiemetic actions
- C. Antiparkinsons effects
- D. Anticholinergic actions
- E. Beta adrenergic blocking actions
125. 16A-125 Which of the following crosses the blood brain barrier
- A.
- B. Propranolol
- C. Dopamine
- D. Edrophonium
- E. Suxamethonium
126.cjb
127.cjb
128.cjb
129. 16A-129 Aspirin
- A binds stronger to albumin than salicylic acid
- B displaces warfarin from its binding site
- C bioavailability increases with food
- D regularly crosses the BBB to cause its effect
- E must be hydrolysed to salicylic acid to have its effect
130. 16A-130 Which tocolytic doesn't work by changing intracellular calcium?
- A. B2 adrenoreceptor agonists
- B.
- C. NSAIDs
- D. Mg
- E.
131. 16A-131 Which is a potential adverse effect of ergometrine?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Stroke
- C. Bronchospasm
- D.
- E.
132. 16A-132 Something about morphine metabolism
- A. 30% is metabolised to morphine-3-glucuronide
- B. 60% is metabolised to morphine-6-glucuronide
- C. codeine is a metabolite
- D. something about renal excretion
- E.
133. 16A-133 Opioids effects except which of the following
- A. Decreased GIT motility
- B. Decreased GIT secretion
- C. Increased circular muscle contraction
- D. Increased GIT absorption
- E. Nausea and vomiting
134. 16A-134 One mg of alfentanil is administered to a pregnant woman at term for induction of anaesthesia prior to a caesarean section.
What percentage of unionised drug (of alfentanil) will be present in the fetal blood?
- A. 1%
- B. 10%
- C. 50%
- D. 90%
- E. 99%
135. TE
136. TE
137. 16A-137 Inhalation analgesia
- A. Don't use methoxyflurane for burns
- B. N2O good for bowel obstruction
- C. Vit B6 supplement needed for N2O
- D. Methoxyflurane use limited by nephrotoxicity
- E. Pernicious anaemia not an issue with N2O
138. 16A-138 NMDA receptors
- A. Stimulated by ketamine
- B. Needs glutamate for activation
- C. Facilitated by magnesium
- D. Present pre & post synaptically
- E. Blocked by methadone
139. 16A-139 Opioids (repeat)
- A. phenylpiperidines - hepatic metabolism
- B. Morphine, tramadol, hydromorphone all have active metabolites
- C. Codeine, oxycodone & tramadol metabolised by CYP 2D6 to active metabolites
- D. Morphine metabolite M6G = 60%
- E. ?
140. 16A-140 In regards to the pulmonary circulation:
- A. Calcium channel blockers cause vasoconstriction
- B. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors cause vasoconstriction
- C. Inhaled prostacyclin (PGI2) causes vasodilation without systemic effects
- D. Inhaled NO increases ventilation to less well perfused regions
- E. ?
141. 16A-141 Muscarinic receptors:
- A. M1 activation decreases potassium flux in the neuron
- B. M1 activation decreases gastric acid synthesis
- C. M (something) increases intracellular cAMP
- D. M2 selectively blocked by pirenzapine
- E. ?
142. 16A-142 Intravenous clonidine
- A. May cause HTN and tachycardia
- B. May cause bradycardia
- C. Same dose given orally is less effective compared to IV
- D. Effective at inhibiting the symapthomimetic response to phaeochromocytoma manipulation
- E. Antegrade amnesia to the same extent as diazepam
143. 16A-143 The bronchial arteries
- A. Supply the parietal pleura
- B. Supply connective tissue of the bronchi (or lung??)
- C. branch off the carotid arteries
- D. two left bronchial arteries branch off the posterior aorta
- E. ummm 4/5 isn't too bad on anatomy question right--- pretty sure it was the obviously wrong one
144. 16A-144 Which is incorrect regarding the trachea
- A. Runs posterior to the aorta
- B. Posterior folds of connective tissue
- C. Anterior to some branch of an artery????
- D. pseudostratified columnar epithelium
- E. Bifurcates at the level of T2
- NOTE: The artery referred to in option C was the brachiocephalic artery
145. A
146. A
147. DVS
148. DVS
149.16A-149 A Line Isolation Monitor
- A. interrupts the circuit if detects current leakage
- B. will protect from microshock
- C. is necessary and sufficient for a body protected area
- D. is necessary and sufficient for a cardiac protected area
- E. intermittently creates single fault conditions
150. 16A-150 Sterilisation
- A. Removal of microorganisms and unwanted matter from contaminated materials
- B. Prevention of microbial contamination
- C. Complete destruction of all microorganisms including spores
- D. Inactivation of nonsporing organisms using thermal or chemical means
- E. Occurs before decontamination and sterilisation
Numbers not recalled
If there are any others that you can recall, even if small parts of a question, place it in this section and hopefully others remember remaining parts.
16A-x1 Receptor in post operative nausea and vomiting
- A. N1
- B. D2
- C. SHT3
- D. H1
- E. M2
16A-x2: Lungs are involved in
- A. Inactivation serotonin
- B. Activation of noradrenalin
- C. Inactivation of ADH
- D. Activation of bradykinin
16A-x3 ->same as 118
16A-x4 Blood gas analyser directly measures:
- A. PCO2, bicarbonate, PO2, BE, pH
- B. bicarbonate, PCO2, pH
- C. BE, pH, PO2, PCO2
- D. PO2, pH, PCO2
- E. PO2, PCO2, bicarbonate
16A-x5 The bronchial artery supplies:
- A. Larynx and pharynx only
- B. Two branches to left lung
- C. Passes anterior to the aorta
- D. Passes posterior to oesophagus
- E. Supplies parietal pleura
- Addition to above bronchial artery question, I'm pretty sure that there was an option: Supplies lung connective tissue
- Another addition - I think one of the options involved two branches off aorta to supply left lung
16A-x6 A Line isolation monitor
- A. Protects against microshock
- B. protects against macroshock
- C. is necessary and sufficient to make a body protected area
- D. is necessary and sufficient to make a cardiac protected area
- E. Intermittently creates faults to test system integrity
16A-x7 Which is NOT an absolute contraindication to propofol?
- A. Egg allergy
- B. Hypersensitivity to soya bean oil
- C. Hypersensitivity to intralipid
- D. Hypersensitivity to propofol
- E. Disordered fat metabolism
16A-x8 In anaesthetic practice following side-effect of propofol is NOT a concern:
- A. bradycardia
- B. hypotension
- C. apnoea
- D. High calorie load
- E. Lactic acidosis
16A-x9 Carbon monoxide (CO) is diffusion limited because:
- A. It rapidly enters the red blood cells
- B. It's passage is limited by the alveolar-gas membrane, therefore it is diffusion limited
- C. It's so soluble that only a diffusion problem could limit its passage
- D.
- E.
16A-x10 - Combined with 16A-93
16A-x11 Following airway pressure trace indicates:
{Picture showing ventilator pressure vs. time curve (ramping up appearance of trace)}
- A. Pressure controlled ventilation
- B. Volume controlled ventilation
- C. Spontaneous ventilation
(Can't remember other options)
16A-x12 Serotonin
- A. Synthesised from tyrosine (this was the incorrect option, but I can't remember the rest)
16A-x13 Picture showing log dose - response curves of 3 drugs A,B and C Drug A had higher potency but lower efficacy than B and C (curve was located most left), drug B had 100% efficacy and was located in the middle, drug C had 100% efficacy and was located most right
Options were:
- A. drug A is partial agonist
- B. drug B less potent than C
- C. drug B is competitive antagonist
(Can't remember the rest)
16A-x14 A molecule of haemoglobin contains
- A. 4 porphyrin rings and 2 ferrous ions
- B. 4 porphyrin rings and 4 ferric ions
- C. 2 porphyrin rings and 2 ferric ions
- D. 4 porphyrin rings and 4 ferrous ions
- E. 4 porphyrin rings and 2 ferric ions
16A-x15 There was a questions about RMP (Can't remember the exact wording) but something like:
At RMP, the ratio of Na:K is:
- A. 10:1
- B. 75:75
- C. 50:50
- D. 25:75
- E. 1:10
(Maybe somebody else can remember the exact wording)