Primary MCQs-February 2011

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Primary Physiology Black Bank | Primary Pharmacology Black Bank



Contents

Primary MCQ papers

Feb06 | Jul06 | Feb07 | Jul07 | Feb08 | Jul08 | Mar09 | Jul09 | Mar10 | Jul10 |

Feb11 | Aug11 | Feb12 | Jul12(Physiol) | Jul12(Pharm) | Feb13(Physiol) | Feb13(Pharm) | Feb13(NewExam) | Sep13 | Feb14 |

Aug14 | Feb15 | Aug15 | Feb16 | Aug16 |


Pharmacology

Unclassified Pharmacology

MD74 Most common side effect of 1g IV vancomycin

A. hypotension and histamine release
B. something about hepatitis
C. something about renal failure
D. hypertension
E. ?

General Pharmacology

GP41 Which drug is optimally given as a racemic mixture?

A. morphine
B. bupivacaine
C. noradrenaline
D. methadone
E. dexmedetomidine


  • new

All of the following are desirable characteristics for a drug to be infused EXCEPT

a. short half life
b. clearance independent of hepatic function
c. titratable effect
d. no active metabolites
e. Low Therapeutic Ratio (I think that was it...?)

E It would be better to have a high therapeutic index i.e.; propofol whose limitation as a sedation agent is the closeness of sedation to GA. (I thought this question was stupid because they were all desirable)

GP42 What does NOT influence calculations for loading dose:

A. CSHT
B. K-e0
C. Volume of distribution
D. Patient age/comorbidities


GP42 ALT version: When calculating a loading dose the pharmacokinetic parameters considered? (?all except):

A. Vd
B. Half Life
C. Effect site equilibration time constant (Ke0)
D. Clearance
E. Therapeutic index


Answer: A CSHT. All the others predict onset not offset.
Alt version: B Although I am not sure about clearance.


Drug which readily crosses blood brain barrier

a.?neostigmine
b. dopamine
c. GABA
d. suxamethonium
e. propanolol


  • Repeat*

Which is not ligand gated ion channel

a. alpha 2 receptor
b.
c.
d.
e.


GP19 Which one acts on ligand gated ion channel

a. Morphine
b.
c.
d. Vecuronium
e.

General Anaesthetics - Inhalational

IN19 Isoflurane

a. halogenated methyl ethyl ether
b. enantiomer of enflurane
c. Boiling point higher than sevo
d. requires thymol as a preservative
e. ?


  • new

Isoflurane - percent metabolised in the body

A. 0.02%
B. 0.2% by CYP4502E1
C. 3%
D. ?
E. ?

There was a question about sevoflurane as well I think. Anybody remember?

Correct answer B


Which volatile anaesthetic is metabolised least?

A. Desflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Halothane
D. Sevoflurane
E. Enflurane

Correct answer A


IN10 The second gas effect is seen with nitrous oxide because

a. It has a low solubility
b. ? It is taken up more rapidly than other agents
c.faster equilibration
d. It is used in high concentrations
e.


  • new

The offset of effect of volatile anaesthetics

a. Can be represented by an Fa/Fi curve
b.
c.
d. Is faster with high fresh gas flows? Is influenced by fresh gas flows?
e. Is faster with overpressure? something about overpressuring (it said you can overpressure it)


General Anaesthetics - Intravenous

Thiopental, proportion or fraction remaining in brain 30 minutes after IV bolus dose it did make it clear that it was the % of the entire initial dose

a.0.2%
b.0.5%
c.1%
d. 10%
e. 50%

Courtesy of Stoelting answer is D.


  • Repeat*

Propofol:

A. ?
B.
C. is 98% protein bound
D.
E.


  • Repeat*

Which drug does NOT have antiemetic properties?

A. propofol
B. ondansetron
C. dexamethasone
D. etomidate
E. midazolam


Propofol 3 compartmental model

a. ?
b.intercompartmental clearance is zero order kinetic
c.Long elimination half life due to large volume of third compartment
d. Effect site is part of central compartment
e. ?


There was another question about propofol clearance as well.


Etomidate

a.pure isomer (I thought there was typo in question reading like "insomer") Yep it said insomer.
b. should not be given to patients with cardiovascular instability
c. can cause myoclonic movements on induction
d. ?
e.


  • new

Use of ketamine infusion as sole anaesthetic

a. more water soluble than propofol therefore not good for anaesthetic
b. 30% experience emergence phenomenon
c. is not ideal due to long half life of 80 minutes
d. ?
e.good analgesic but not enough hypnosis or sedation

(can't remember this question well, please feel free to correct)

Local Anaesthetics

  • new

Most to least potent local anaesthetic when given intrathecally

a.lignocaine>
b.lignocaine>
c.ropivacaine>bupivacaine>levobupivacaine>lignocaine
d.levobupivacaine=bupivacaine>ropivacaine>lignocaine
e.bupivacaine>levobupivacaine>ropivacaine>lignocaine

I am sure option A & B start with lignocaine and I am sure the sequence of option D, but can't remember option C & E very well. Please feel free to correct.


LA28 EMLA:

a. lignocaine + procaine
b. total local anaesthetic concentration is 2.5%
c. at 60 minutes penetration is 10mm
d. more effective in caucasians
e. causes vasoconstriction


Muscle Relaxants & Antagonists

  • new

Patient with Ea:Ea genotype, dibucaine number is

a. 20
b. 35
c. 40
d. 60
e. 80

(I don't think there was an option of 80 - which made it easier!)


Muscle relaxant with metabolite which is 50-70% active

a. atracurium
b. vecuronium
c.
d. D-tubocurarine
e.none of the above

Note: pancuronium was not in the options.


Which one does not decrease the activity of plasma cholinesterase

A. neostigmine
B. pancuronium
C. metoclopramide
D. frusemide
E. ?


  • new

Drugs with prolonged action in plasma cholinesterase deficiency

a.suxamethonium and remifentanil

b.mivacurium and remifentanil

c.suxamethonium and procaine

d.esmolol and remifentanil

e.remifentanil and procaine

Answer: C - because Remifentanil = nonspecific tissue and plasma esterases, Esmolol = plasma esterases (not cholinesterases)


  • new

What is most correct with Phase 2 block

A. Decreased acetylcholine release?
B. ?
C. Fade seen on TOF
D. ?
E. ?

Major Analgesics/Opioids

  • new

Log dose curve of two full opiod agoinsts given (ED50 of the first one is 2, and that of second one is 16 in diagram) How many time the first one is more potent than the second?

a. 8

b. 4

c. 2

d. ?0.5

e. ?0.2


Most likely side effect of intrathecal morphine

A. sweating
B. urinary retention
C. ?
D.
E.


Regarding remifentanil

A. Context Sensitive Half Life 4 minutes
B. Not eliminated by the liver at all
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?


Anticholinergics/Antimuscarinics

Most dangerous side effect of atropine in children

A. Tachycardia
B. Hyperthermia
C. Dehydration
+ other things that weren't effects of atropine

Psychotherapeutic Drugs

Flumazenil

A. Is effective for barbituate and benzodiazepine overdose
B. Direct effect on GABA
C. Has active metabolites
D. Elimination half life is 6 hours.
E. Has effects when given in isolation?

Cardiovascular Drugs

CD63 Clonidine side effects

A. Sedation
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. ?
D. ?
E. delirium


  • Repeat*

Milrinone

A. (?vasodiation or ?decrease cAMP) by stimulating phosphodiesterase
B. pulmonary vasodiation by inhibiting myosin light chain kinase
C. systemic vasodilation by releasing nitric oxide in vascular endothelium
D. systemic vasoconstriction
E. cardiac arrhythmia by increasing beta 1 activity


Nitric oxide:

A. Causes pulmonary hypertension in neonates
B. A gas which is easy to deliver and titrate
C. ?


  • Repeat*

Digoxin toxicity:

A. shorten PR interval
B. visual disturbance
C. ?prolong QT interval
D. ventricular extrasystoles
E. >1 ng/ml


  • Repeat*

Beta blocker with the HIGHEST oral bioavailability

A. labetalol
B. atenolol
C. sotalol
D. metoprolol
E. ?carvedilol


Sodium nitroprusside at 10mcg/kg/min

A. decrease mixed venous oxygen saturation
B. lactic acidosis
C. ?
D. ?
E. increase hepatic rhodanase activity


Adenosine

A. half life more than 10 minutes (Alt: t1/2 15 mins)
B. activates potassium channels in conducting tissues
C. depress SA node activity
D. increased effect with caffeine
E. ?use in AF (can't sure about this option)


  • new

The urine volume, pH, Na, K, Cl and HCO3 concentrations were measured before(control) and after giving drugs X & Y.

Urine Flow pH Na K Cl HCO3
Control 1ml/min 6.4 50 15 60 1
Drug X 8mL/min 6.0 140 30 155 1
Drug Y 2mL/min 8.2 70 60 15 120


The most likely site of action of drug X is

a. proximal convoluted tubule

b. cortical portion of ascending limb of loop of Henle

c. medullary portion of ascending limb of loop of Henle

d. distal convoluted tubule

e. collecting duct

Note that drug Y was not actually asked about, but did help to rationalise the answer.

please feel free to enter numbers into the table above. I've done what i can remember - if you are sure it was different then feel free to change it.

  • Sorry but I took you up on your offer... this question is flogged straight from Stoelting (as usual)
  • Drug X - Loop diuretic - Medullary portion of AscLOH
  • Drug Y - Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor - PCT

See Stoelting 4th editon pg 489

Endocrine Drugs

EN02 Prostaglandin F2-alpha used for post partum haemorrhage, most likely side effect

A.
B.vasodilation
C.
D.Severe hypertension secondary to PGe vasoconstriction
E. bronchoconstriction (?secoandary to PGF2a receptor effect)

I thought the stem of this question went something like in post partum haemorrhage what would be the most likely side effect of the following drugs a. ergomerine + something b oxytocin = something c + d effects of PGE2 and PGF-alpha with vasodiltation and bronchoconstriction but can't remember which one they put with which


EN05 Oxytocin 10 units given IV

A.
B.metabolised in liver
C. Causes hypotension by direct effect on heart
D.
E.?vasodilation

Miscellaneous Drugs

Adverse effects with paracetamol:

A. gastric irritation
B. prolonged bleeding
C. Inhibit platelet aggregation
D. causes metHb
E. Renal impairment/failure

Answer: Renal impairment; by p-aminophenol. MetHb Is caused by phenacetin, a withdrawn drug related but different to paracetemol


  • New

Choose the best antidote to paracetamol toxicity:


Compared with heparin, low molecular weight heparin

a. 1/10th the average molecule size?

b. higher protein binding

c.

d. better bioavaiability at low doses

e. same effect on factor 2 and 10


  • Repeat*

Which one of the following is non-particulate antacid

A. aluminium hydroxide
B. magnesium trisilicate
C. sodium citrate
D. ??cimetidine ??cisapride
E. sucralfate


  • Repeat*

Which drug reversibly inhibits platelet aggregation?

A. clopidogrel
B. warfarin
C. heparin
D. diclofenac
E. aspirin

answer diclofenac


Side effect of Gelofusin (succinylated gelatin)

A. prolonged pruritus
B. immune mediated hypersensitivity
C. decrease factor 8 levels (Alt: decr factor 7 levels)
D. inhibit platelet function
E. RBC rouleaux formation


Ethanol

a.

b.Eliminated at constant rate virtually independent of serum concentration

c.

d.?does not affect hepatic P450 enzymes.

e.Hepatic first pass metabolism at constant rate almost (or virtually, something though) independent of rate of absorption


The main mechanism of action of Ondansetron is most likely through

a.decrease serotonin levels in CTZ

b.action is mainly due to peripheral antagonism of 5HT3 receptors

c.Inhibition of a ligand gated CATION channel

d.irreversibly binds to 5HT3 receptor

e.5-HT4 antagonism


Caffeine causes

a.

b.cerebral vasoconstriction

c.

d.

e.potent diuretic


Which is not a serotonin receptor antagonist

a. sumatriptan

b. ondansetron

c. ketanserin

d. ?

e. clozapine

answer sumatriptan


Often drug overdose goes with specific treatment. Typical pairing is

a.

b. beta blockers and glucagon

c. Tricyclic antidepressants and physostigmine

d.

e.


Warfarin:

a. racaemic mixture

b.


  • repeat*

All exist as a racaemic mixture except:

a. Lignocaine


Dexmedetomidine:

a. can cause bradycardia and sinus arrest


Question about phenoxybenzamine

Statistics & Drug Trials

t test is used

a. with contingency tables

b. on non-normally distributed data if the sample number is large

c. with sample size less than 30

d.

e.used in Poissin distribution


Standard Normal distribution

a.Standard deviation is the sum of the deviation from the mean squared divided by n-1 (something like that)

b.Standard deviation is square of variance divided by sample size minus one

c.Standard deviation is square root of variance divided by sample size minus one

d.68% of data fall around one standard deviation from the mean

e.95% of data ?related to one side of standard deviation (not remembered well but is obviously wrong one)

Physiology

General Physiology

Fluid & Electrolytes

FE36 With regards to chloride:

A. ? changes in direct proportion to bicarboate
B. it is the major cation extracellularly
C. is a weak base
D. ?
E. Intracellular concentration < 20 mMol/L


FE27 Regarding potassium and hydrogen:

A. both go in the same direction.
B. acidosis increases potassium loss.
C. insulin affects the interaction between potassium and H+
D. hypokalaemia inhibits acid secretion
E. ?


FE04 Hyperkalemia:

A. loss of p wave
B. inverted T wave
C. ST depression
D. prolonged QT
E. ?


FE20 Magnesium is essential for:

A. muscle contraction
B. cofactor in Na/K/ATPase
C. something about bone
D. ?
E. ?

Acid-base physiology

AD24 Haemoglobin is a better buffer than plasma proteins because

A. present in much greater quanitity
B. Hb contains 38 carboxyl residues
C. plasma proteins have pKa closer to physiological pH
D. ?
E. ?


AD10 AD26 Loss of 1 litre of pancreatic fluid-with normal fluid status causes:

A. Hyperchloremic acidosis
B. (Every other wrong combination)
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

MCQ-Feb11-02 Values measured directly from blood gas machine

A. pH, pO2, pCO2
B. (other wrong combo's)
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

Respiratory Physiology

With cardiac output and oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve unchanged, venous partial pressure of oxygen will be decreased with.

A. cyanide poisoning
B. ?
C. Anaemia
D. Hypothermia
E. Carbon monoxide poisoning


MF16 ABG of pregnant woman pH 7.45, pCO2 32, pO2 105, HCO3 22, Sats 99%

A. She must be breathing supplemental O2
B. She has a metabolic acidosis which is normal in pregnancy
C. metabolic alkalsosis
D. She has a respiratory alkalosis which is normal in pregnancy
E. Bicarbonate should be higher


Healthy male ABGs ph 7.4 pco2 50 (no bicarb value was given)

A. acute respiratory acidosis
B. bicarb likely to be raised
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?


(* repeat*) At altitude, breathing air: Atmospheric pressure = 248 mmHg, pCO2 = 20. pAO2 is

A. 0 mmHg
B. 17 mmHg
C. 27 mmHg
D. 30 mmHg
E. Something higher


Low Spo2( or increased A-a gradient) during abdominal surgery under GA is due to

A. increased shunt
B. increased dead space
C. alveolar hypoventilation
D. ?
E. ?

Which of the following muscles are NOT used in active EXPiration

A. external intercostals
B. diaphragm
C. pectoralis minor
D. Anterior scalene
E. abdominal muscles


  • repeat*

Dissolved o2 concentration

A. 6mls/100mL when breathing 100%O2 at 3 atm
B. 6mls/100mL when breathing 100% o2 at 1 atm
C. 0.003/100ml when breathing 100% at 1 atm
D. 0.003/100ml when breathing 100% at 1 atm
E. ?

Answer = B (comment: incorrect, at 1 atm it will only give 2ml/100ml of O2, so the answer should be a.)

Answer = B (see below)

Or, rather, Answer A (see below)

Ganong 23rd ed: "When blood is equilibrated with 100% O2 (PO2 = 760 mm Hg), the normal hemoglobin becomes 100% saturated. When fully saturated, each gram of normal hemoglobin contains 1.39 mL of O2. However, blood normally contains small amounts of inactive hemoglobin derivatives, and the measured value in vivo is lower. The traditional figure is 1.34 mL of O2. The hemoglobin concentration in normal blood is about 15 g/dL (14 g/dL in women and 16 g/dL in men). Therefore, 1 dL of blood contains 20.1 mL (1.34 mL × 15) of O2 bound to hemoglobin when the hemoglobin is 100% saturated. The amount of dissolved O2 is a linear function of the PO2 (0.003 mL/dL blood/mm Hg PO2)."

Therefore dissolved O2 in ml/100ml blood = 0.003 x (760-[CO2]-[H20]) = 0.003 x (760 - 47 - 40) = 2.019 at 1atm = ~6ml at 3atm.

Dead space is increased with (repeat)

A. moving from supine to erect position
B. intubation
C. moving from erect to semirecumbent
D. tucking chin in
E. ?


RE68 Blood draining from an unventilated part of lung will have an O2 composition identical to

A. coronary sinus
B. pulmonary artery
C. Bronchial artery
D. Alveolar gas
E. ?


Following is true ( cant remember correct wording)

A. apical alveoli have higher po2 than basal alveoli
B. ventilation increase from base to apex.
C. basal alveoli have lower pco2 than apical alveoli
D. apical Co2 levels are low (28mmHg)
E. V/Q ratio at apex/base is low/high with a value 0.3/3 in brackets


During the increased intra-thoracic pressure phase of valsalva manouvre

A. decreased diastolic filling right ventricle
B. no change in SVR
C. ?lasting bradycardia
D. increased pressure augments cardiac output
E. ?


CO2 highest in which sample: (repeat)

A. ideal alveolar gas
B. mixed expired gas
C. end-expiratory gas
D. ?
E. ?

CVS physiology

Greatest prepotential??

A. SA node
B. AV node
C. Atrial muscle fibres
D. Ventricular muscle
E. ?

"The prepotential is a gradually change in the electrical charge at the inner surface of the cell membrane." Therefore A


In mild to moderate hemorrhage in healthy adult

A. ?
B. ?
C. significant cerebral and coronary vasoconstriction does not occur
D. blood pressure is normally maintained
E. ?


Although cerebral and coronary vasoconstriction seem to be able to occur in haemorrhage (a few articles found by Google search), Levy 9Ed pp 248 implies that blood pressure falls first, during which time coronary and cerebral arteries dilate (at least initially). Therefore I think C is the best answer of the two available. Is there a standard definition of mild/moderate/severe haemorrhage?? COMMENTS MOST WELCOME!!! (Jan2012)

Comment - Class 1 (0-15%), 2 (15-30%), 3 (30-40%), 4 (>40%) haemorrhage is usual classification. BP decreases in class 3 or 4 so both options are probably correct. (Source: ATLS manual)


CV28 Which has fastest conduction velocity?

A. SA node
B. atrial muscle
C. AV node
D. Bundle branches
E. Ventricular muscle


CV34 Greatest AV o2 gradient to least AV O2 gradient (repeat)

A. heart muscle> liver > skin > kidney
B. Heart > liver > kidney > skin
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

(Heavy Breathing May Leave Skin Klammy)


CV53 Baro-receptors located in all EXCEPT

A. carotid sinus
B. carotid body
C. aortic arch
D. Vena cava
E. Atria?


CV61 Pulse pressure is decreased in all EXCEPT

A. increased aortic compliance
B. increased SVR
C. Decreased diastolic pressure
D. ?
E. ?


In old age, all occur EXCEPT (I think it was an except question, not 100% sure though)

A. Diastolic BP increases
B. pulse pressure increases
C. Ventricular compliance increases
D. Aortic compliance increases? Not sure on this one.
E. ?


Answer is C.


What is the mixed venous SvO2 for normal adult breathing 100% O2

A. 75%

(I recall this as being the partial pressure, not sats... anyone?) In which case the answer would be 50mmHg (which has been previously asked).


Mitral valve opening coincides with:

A. the second heart sound
B. LV pressure > LA pressure
C. isovolumetric contraction
D. ?
E. ?

(??none of the above? - Am I wrong?)


Which corresponds to maximal calcium flux in the myocyte:

A. P wave
B. T wave
C. R wave
D. ST segment
E. ?

Answer ?D ?ST segment - comments?


Following is true

A. o2 extraction is 70% normally in the heart.
B. coronary blood flow increases only to 400ml/min during exercise.
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

In exercise increases up to 5x (=1.250L/min)


Exercise causes ( can someone remember this ? properly )

A. decreases SVR


Renal physiology

What is the maximum molecular weight of a molecule able to be filtered by the glomerulus?

A. 2,000 Da?
B. 7,000 Da
C. 35,000 Da
D. 70,000 Da
E. ?

I thought there was one around 350 in there -- yes there is, added here, and i think its the correct answer
No, the answer is 68,000 Da, closest would be D.


The primary goal of (or something like that, but wording was important) renal autoregulation of blood flow is to:

A. Maintain GFR
B. Maintain blood supply to renal medulla
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?


Plasma creatinine can be used as a measure of GFR: (repeat)

A. can be used to calculate creatinine clearance
B. as it is freely filtered, not reabsorbed, not secreted
C. as it is produced in the liver at a relatively constant rate
D. ?
E. ?

GI physiology

(*repeat*)

Which of the following increases increases duodenal pH

A. secretin
B. gastrin
C. CCK
D. ?
E. ?

(#repeat#)

Following are functions of liver except

A. immunoglobulins

Blood & Immunology

BL27 Blood viscosity:

A. increases proportionally to hematocrit ratio
B. can be calculated by rearranging the hagen poisuelle law
C. varies inversely with flow.
D. does not depend on the diameter of the tube over a large range (I don't remember this being an option at all) Agree, this was not an option
E. decreases with increasing blood flow


Prostacyclin

A. Causes vasoconstriction
B. inhibits platelet aggregation
C. causes bronchoconstriction
D. inhibits renin secretion
E. ?


Haemoglobin:

A. 1 porphyrin ring and 1 ferrous ion
B. 4 and 4
C. etc with different numbers


Complement

A. C5b6789 causes opsonisaton
B. C5b causes....
C. C3a causes....
D. c5a causes chemotaxis -- which is the answer, no?
E. ?

Endocrine & metabolic physiology

Calcium metabolism

A. 10% of ingested calcium is absorbed
B. mucosal binding protein is needed
C. absorbed by facilitated diffusion.
D. ?
E. ?

B2 adrenoreceptors

A. decreases renin release
B. something about insulin
C. ciliary muscle relaxation/contraction
D. ?
E. ?


Basal heat production in adults is mostly due to

A. skeletal muscle activity
B. Na/K/ATPase
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

MCQ-Aug11-14 Insulin causes:

A. increases hormone sensitive lipase
B. increases lipoprotein lipase
C. (other 3 options) effects on a whole lot of other enzymes
D. ?
E. ?


ADH produced in:

A. hypothalamus
B. anterior pituitary
C. posterior pituitary
D. ?
E. ?


Conversion of pyruvate to lactate is useful for the body as:

A. produces 2 ATP
B. converts NADPH to NAD+
C. ?
D. ?
E. None of the above

(others recalled B as "converts NAD+ to NADH")


Neurophysiology

MCQ-Feb11-01 Pacinian corpuscles:

A. large receptive field
B. ? minimally sensitive to pressure changes
C. slowly adapting
D. ?
E. ?

Delay in neuro transmission is due to ( or something like that )

A. time taken for binding of neurotransmitters to post synaptic receptors
B. delay is 10miliseconds
C. calcium release into the synapse
D. EPP to reach threshold
E. ?

"Most of this delay is consumed by the release process, particularly the time required for calcium channels to open." 0.5ms. Katzung 11Ed pp359. Therefore A best answer.


Resting Membrane potential

A. Independent of anions
B. generated by Na/K atpase
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

Can't remember what the other options were, or what was the correct answer


Flow in the anterior cerebral artery

A. reduction in BP from 120 mmhg to 80 mmhg
B. decreases when intracranial pressure doubled
C. decreases when breathing air with pCO2 6 mmHg
D. increased when breathing 100% O2
E. ?


Unmyelinated C fibres terminate in which laminae (repeat)

A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. II and III etc
D. ?
E. ?

Physiology of muscle & NMJ

(*new*)

Mini end-plate potential

A. influenced by extracellular calcium concentration
B. magnesium
C. abolished by curare
D. ? redback spider venom (increased/decreased by)
E. tiger snake venom (increased/decreased by)


(*repeat*)

Which of the following increases acetylcholine release

A. ?
B. ?
C. Acetylcholine
D. ?
E. ?


Immediate source of energy for muscle contraction (repeat).

A. Phosphoryl creatine in skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle and ATP for smooth muscle.
B. ATP for all muscle types
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?


Smooth muscle differs from skeletal muscle (repeat)

A. high actin : myosin ratio
B. more mitochondria
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?


Something about fluid leaving capillaries in skeletal muscle being low:

A. due to low Kf
B. high interstitial protein content
C. lymphatics help in clearing the fluid
D. ?
E. ?

Maternal, foetal & neonatal physiology

MF03 Ductus arteriosus closure

A. due to increased pO2
B. mediated by prostaglandins
C. increased pressure in LA compared to RA
D. due to increased SVR
E. ?

Clinical measurement

Which is NOT used in BIS monitoring

A. Fourier analysis
B. Time domain analysis
C. Statistical multivariant analysis
D. Bispectral analysis
E. Fronto temporal monitoring


Which is INCORRECT in regards to pneumotachograph

A. No pressure drop across screen
B. accuracy affected by temperature
C. provides measurement of volume
D. flow is laminar
E. Is affected by anaesthetic gases


Co2 measurement from a side stream analysis requires

A. infra red source with 2 wavelengths
B. low gas flows
C. high gas flows
D. a small sampling chamber
E. a variable filter


CM36 Which of the following is a base SI unit

A. Newton
B. Ampere
C. Joule
D. Pascal
E. Hertz


Clarke electrode: (repeat)

A. Platinum anode, Ag/AgCl cathode
B. current of 0.6amps applied
C. measures O2 tension in blood and gas samples
D. temperature control is not important
E. can be used to measure O2 from blood and gas samples (which is the correct answer)
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