Primary MCQs-March 2010

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Add your remembered MCQs in this section if you don't have time to classify them first

The following is NOT associated with a ligand gated ion channel

A. histamine
C. glutamate
D. aspartate
E. acetylcholine

ALT Version of Above: GP31 Which is NOT a ligand-gated ion channel?

A. Alpha2-adrenoreceptor
B. GABA-A receptor
C. Nicotinic ACh receptor
D. ?
E. ?

Which is the following is not presented as a racemic mixture (repeat):

A. enflurane
B. isoflurane
C. lignocaine
D. Thiopentone
E. Ketamine

Which ONE is true regarding serotonin receptors?

A. 5-HT1 receptors mediate cerebral ?vasoconstriction/?vasodilatation

B. 5-HT4 receptors mediate GI smooth muscle relaxation

C. 5-HT3 receptors are ligand-gated ion channels involved with emesis and pain and appetite / emotion

D. 5-HT2 receptors are ??

E. ?

GP30 Which is true for LD50? (repeat)

A. a probit score of 5 means it is 5 SD away from the median

B. mean lethal dose

C. calculated from graded dose-response curves

D. calculated from quantal dose-response curves

E. you keep giving a bunch of animals a drug until the animals die

Which drug has its action significantly prolonged by deficiency (? or inhibition) or pseudocholinesterase?

A. esmolol

B. remifentanil

C. mivacurium

D. procaine

E. ?

General Anaesthetics - Inhalational

Regarding sevoflurane:

A) Has a boiling point of 24 degrees

B) Has a blood gas coefficient of 2.5

C) Has plasma fluoride levels of ? 2mmol/L after 1 MAC hour

D) Is irritant to the airways

E) Can produce compound A from metabolism in the body

  • NB: I remember option C as being "20mmol/L" /
    • I also remember C as being 20 mmol/l

MAC is an example of?

A) median ?lethal/?effective dose

B) mean lethal dose

C) 95% CI

D) ?

E) ?

Which is not true (regarding volatiles)?

A. desflurane is NOT metabolised in the body

B. sevoflurane does NOT break down into CO in carbon dioxide absorbers

C. sevoflurane is metabolized to compound A in the body which is nephrotoxic to rats

D. ?

E. ?

  • I remember option B as not broken down to trifluoroacetate, which made the question more difficult!
    • That was an option but I'm pretty sure it's the only volatile that's not broken down to trifluoroacetyl chloride & can't produce hepatotoxicity this way
      • Agreed, that's why i couldn't choose between A and B!
        • I can't pick between any of them. They're all not true.

Which is true regarding inhaled anaesthetics?

A. Nitrous oxide does not precipitate arrhythmias

B. Xenon and nitrous oxide both increase cerebral blood flow

C. rest were clearly wrong i think...

D. One was about giving nitrous oxide with subsequent administration of adrenaline having an adverse effect

E. ?

General Anaesthetics - Intravenous

IV Propofol is:

A. ?

B. ?

C. 98% protein bound

D. ?

E. ?

IV Midazolam has a fast onset time because:

A) it has a fast effect site equilibration time

B) ? incorrect pharmacokientic values

C) ?

D) ?

E) ?

IV Ketamine is: (repeat?)

A) a direct negative inotrope

B) causes bronchoconstriction

C) ?

D) ?

E) ?

IV Ketamine: (separate question to above)

A) decreases secretions

B) has intense analgesic effects at submaximal doses (think value given was 0.1 - 0.5mg/kg ??)

C) ?

D) ?

E) ?

IV Egg lecithin is added to propofol for which effect?

A) bactericidal

B) tonicity adjusting

C) emulsifier

D) pH adjusting

E) ?

IV Regarding propofol clearance:

A) significantly affected with cirrhosis of liver

B) apparent increase in neonates

C) decreased in pregnancy

D) reduced in renal failure

E) ?

Local Anaesthetics

LA An equivalent dose of ropivacaine and bupivacaine is given via the epidural route to a pregnant woman. The correct statement is:

A) ED50 is unrelated to gestational age

B) Plasma concentration will be higher in the foetus than the mother

C) Plasma concentration in the mother will be higher for bupivacaine than ropivacaine

D) Plasma conc in mother higher for ropivacaine than bupivacaine

E) Plasma conc unrelated to the use of vasoconstrictors

LA Ropivacaine is (repeat)?

A. an S-enantiopure enantiomer

B. Produces more motor block than bupivacaine

C. ?

D. ?

E. similar physicochemical properties to bupivacaine

  • I remember option A as R-enantiomer
    • Yep -definitely was R-enantiomer

Muscle Relaxants & Antagonists

Hyperkalaemia following suxamethonium use is MOST pronounced with:

A. severe abdominal infection

B. a patient who sustained 30% burns 3 days ago

C. a patient who sustained 30% burns 2 years ago

D. a patient who sustained trauma 3 days ago

E. a patient with chronic renal failure and a potassium of 5.5 mmol/L

NB: I remember option C as "severe burns" 2 years ago

Which is true regarding atracurium?

A) it is more lipid soluble than pancuronium

B) it is a benzylisoquinolinium

C) ?

D) ?

E) ?

Which is true of rocuronium?

A) it is a benzylisoquinolinium

B) kidneys account for 30% of its elimination

C) it has maximum speed of onset at a dose of 2 x ED95

D) more lipid soluble than pancuronium

E) is a monoquartnerary structure

- I remember option B as kidneys account for most of its elimination - I agree, I think option B was "hepatic metabolism accounts for 30% of elimination" and I don't think option D was there at all

The Vd for all the non-depolarizing muscle relaxants is which range?

A) 0.05-0.19L/kg

B) 0.20-0.35L/kg

C) 0.35-0.5L/kg

D) ?1-3L/kg

E) ?5-9L/kg

The normal dibucaine number in the majority of the population is?

A) 80

B) 60

C) 40

D) 20

E) ?


A) unlikely to have ganglionic blocking effects

B) can cause increased catecholamine release

C) benzylisoquinolinium

D) unlikely to cause tachycardia

E) ?

Major Analgesics/Opioids

OP The following drug does not have an active metabolite:

A) methadone

B) oxycodone

C) morphine

D) pethidine

E) codeine

OP Alfentanil has a very fast onset because (repeat)?

A) highly lipid-soluble with an oil-water partition coefficient of 1740

B) 90% unionized at physiological pH

C) poorly protein-bound

D) rapid effect-site equilibtartion of 3 minutes

E) all of the aboce

OP Codeine:

A) poor bioavailability due to high first-pass metabolism

B) is demethylated in the liver

C) oral analgesic dose has a maximum effect at 30mg

D) works well when given IV

E) ?

OP Why does codeine have minimal analgesic effect in a certain subsection of patients?

A) they don't hydrolyse it

B) they have ultra fast CYP2D6 metabolic pathways

C) ?

D) ?

E) ?

OP Tramadol compared to morphine:

A. causes less nausea & vomiting

B. causes less respiratory depression

C. ?

D. ?

E. ?

OP Which is not true regarding opioid receptors?:

A. mu cause euphoria, delta cause dysphoria

B. mu, kappa, and delta all present in gut and cause constipation

C. kappa less analgesic than mu

D. ?

E. ?


You want to cause mydriasis for cataract surgery, what drug can you use?

A. timolol

B. pindolol

C. pilocarpine

D. acetazolamide

E. tropicamide

Which is true regarding the muscarinic ACh receptor?

A) M2 is selectively bocked by pilocarpine

B) M1 causes a response due to increased hyperpolarizing K+ efflux current

C) M3 causes a response due to stimulation of adenylate cyclase

D) ?

E) ?

Psychotherapeutic Drugs

Oxazepam is a metabolite of (repeat):

A) diazepam

B) temazepam

C) lorazepam

D) flurazepam (not fluntirazepam)

E) midazolam

IV Midazolam acts by:

A. direct agonist effect on GABA channel

B. increasing frequency of opening of GABA channel

C. decreasing frequency of opening of GABA channel

D. increasing duration of opening of GABA channel

E. decreasing frequency of opening of GABA channel

Cardiovascular Drugs

CD Digoxin toxicity is associated with

A. short PR interval

B. long QT interval

C. visual disturbance

D. something wrong

E. ??

CD SNP toxicity is recognised by

A) tachyphylaxis

B) decrease mixed venous O2

C) simultaneous use of GTN

D) something else wrong

CD Which of the following is commonly seen with milrinone?

A) hypotension due to release of nitric oxide from endothelium

B) inotropic effect due to increased action at beta1-adrenoreceptors

C) pulmonary vasodilation due to inhibition of myosin light chain kinase

D) severe thrombocytopaenia

CD Which is NOT true regarding loop diuretics?

A) they are potent diuretics capable of increasing urine output by 25%

B) they can cause metabolic acidosis

C) they can cause hypokalaemia

D) inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption from tubules

E) ?

CD Which is true regarding amiodarone?

A) inactivates slow inward rectifier K+ channels in the heart

B) changes duration of QRS complex

C) shortens QT interval

D) ?

E) ?

CD Which is true of beta-blockers (may have been 2 different questions)?

A) may mask hypoglycaemic symptoms

B) decrease Na+ and water retention due to effects on beta1-adrenergic receptors

C) ?

D) ?

E) ?

CD Carvedilol:

A) can decrease renin secretion

B) selective beta-blocker

C) useful in CCF to improve stroke volume by decreasing remodelling

D) ?

E) ?

Endocrine Drugs

Regarding sulphonylureas

A) effective if patient insulin deficient

B) cause lactic acidosis

C) contraindicated with sulphonamide allergy

D) have antibacterial properties similar to sulphonamides

E) highly protein bound

CD Phenoxybenzamine action on smooth muscle is best described as:

A) competitive antagonist

B) alpha1-selective antagonist

C) binds via van der waals forces

D) ?

E) ?

Miscellaneous Drugs


A) is safe in pregnancy

B) onset is related to speed of production of coagulation factors

C) causes carboxylation of prothrombin

D) is presented as a racemic mixture

Which is true regarding colloids?

A) dextrans stay in the circulation for 6-8hrs

B) gelatins have a higher rate of anaphylaxis than starches

C) ?? has greater effect on coagulation than ??

D) do not depend on renal clearance for excretion

E) ?

Aspirin is indicated in the treatment of all of the following except:

A) coronary artery disease

B) psoriasis

C) prevention of colorectal carcinoma

D) radiation induced diarrhoea

E) Alzheimer's disease

Which is most safe in pregnancy?

A) Angiotensin II receptor blockers

B) Methyldopa

C) Calcium channel blockers


E) Beta-blockers

( i don't think NSAIDs were there. There was enalapril, irbesartan, metoprolol, amlodipine and one other)


A) has antacid properties

B) can be used safely in renal failure

C) binds to protons and peptides

D) is water soluble

E) is not associated with nosocomial pneumonia

Most commonly seen side effect of vancomycin:

A) Thrombocytopaenia

B) Hypotension with histamine release

C) ?

D) ?

E) ?

Regarding clopidogrel:

A) Serum levels remain high for 5 days

B) Metabolite binds to platelet ADP receptor

C) Inhibits re-uptake of adenosine

D) ?

E) ?

Regarding the new neurokinin-A antagonists used for nausea:

A) Effects on dopamine and 5-HT receptors in CTZ

B) Effects via action on substance P

C) Direct effects on vomiting centre

D) Used for motion induced nausea

E) ?

Which anti-emetic does not cross blood brain barrier?

A. Metoclopramide

B. Ondansetron

C. Droperidol

D. Domperidone

E. Hyoscine

Which can cause serious skin reactions in patients with ? sulphonamide allergy?

A. valdecoxib

B. paracoxib

C. celecoxib

D. rofecoxib

E. A, B & C (or some combination of three)

Statistics & Drug Trials

The ..?.. clinical trial that has the highest level of evidence is

A) Randomised controlled trial

B) cross over study

C) case control series

D) open-label stude

The t-test is used for:

A) non-normal data

B) sample size less than 20

C) parametric data

D) comparing more than 2 means

E) ?


Unclassified Physiology

Which is represented by linear equation? (repeat)

A) malignant growth

B) minute ventilation with O2

C) minute ventilation with CO2

D) uptake of O2 along capillary

E) uptake of CO2 along capillary

Which is assocaited with the ?sarcolemmal or ?sarcoplasmic reticulur Ca2+ channel?

A) ryanodine (?ryandine) receptor
B) dihydropyridine receptor
C) voltage-gated Ca2+ channel
D) IP3 receptor
E) Ca/Mg ATPase

(Don't know if this was deliberate or not but A) was definitely RYANDINE receptor - ? typo ?? examiners being mean)

General physiology

Regarding voltage clamping (new):

A) giant squid axon is used because it contains only Na+ channels
B) you apply a current to stop flow through the Na+ chanel and the current applied is equal in magnitude but opposite in polarity to the channel being studies
C) ?
D) ?
E) ?

Bilirubin (repeat)?

A) formed in reticuloendothelial system
B) is formed only from RBC breakdown
C) transported to liver, conjugated then secreted into blood
D) stercobilin ends up in the urine
E) ?

Steady laminar flow is inversly related to:

A) radius4
B) pressure difference
C) length
D) density
E) velocity

The Na/K-ATPase pump (repeat):

A. is stimulated by ouabain
B. 3ATP is hydrolysed for every 3Na+ pumped
C. it is electrogenic
D. pumps 3K+ out for 2Na+ in
E. ?

Regarding nitric oxide:

A. diffuses across the membrane to bind to intracellular receptors
B. binds to extracellular receptors that stimulates ...
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

Fluid & electrolytes

FE11 Which is true regarding a normal 70kg adult on a normal day (repeat?):

A) 300mL water lost in faeces
B) 700mL water lost as insensibles from lung and skin and ?
C) 500mL water lost in urine
D) 200mL water lost from metabolic processes
E) none of the above

Aldosterone causes which of the following?

A. Na+ and water retention but K+ secretion
B. Na+, water and K+ absorption
C. Na+, water and H+ absorption
D. Na+ and water excretion
E. ?

FE22 Regarding sweat osmolality during exercise (repeat):

A. greater than plasma
B. less than plasma
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

Acid-base physiology

AD28 In plasma, a 'strong ion':

A. is usually a cation
B. is usually an anion
C. has its pKa close to 7.40
D. almost completely dissociates
E. ?

AD18 Base excess is

A) measured at a (? standard) pCO2 of 40mmHg
B) is EQUAL to the difference between the measured bicarb and standard bicarb
C) is always negative when pH > 7.40
D) increases inversely with the bicarbonate level
E) something wrong

AD04 Why is phosphate such a good buffer in ICF and urine? (repeat)

A. ICF has lower pH than ECF (I'm pretty sure this was ICF has higher conc of phosphate than ECF actually)
B. tubular pH is low
C. pKa is close to pH
D. concentration is high in urine and ICF (don't remember them asking about conc in the urine)
E. all of above

AD25 At pH 7.4, [H+] is (repeat)?

A. 40nmol/L
B. 40mmol/L
C. 40mOsmol/L
D. ?
E. ?

AD27 Someone with a PaCO2 of 200mmHg (two hundred!), which of the following would you expect:

A. ?
B. ?
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyperkalaemia
E. Bradycardia

Answer D. Reference Nunns Ed 6 pg 331.....The acidosis that accompanies hypercapnia causes leakage of potassium from the cells into the plasma

Respiratory Physiology

ANATOMICAL dead space is increased with

A) supine to erect
B) erect to sitting
C) intubating the patient
D) flexing the patient's head and putting their chin down
E) ? breathing out from TLC to RV

NB: I remember option B as going from "erect to semi-recumbent position" Probably best answer A. Reference Nunn's Ed 6 pg 119


A) may contribute to the etCO2 being lower than the ideal alveolar gas
B) can be measured using the Bohr equation with end-TIDAL CO2
C) isn't influenced by alveolar dead space
D) ?
E) ?

At altitude of 8,800m the atmospheric pressuere is 248mmHg. What is the alveolar pO2 assuming PaCO2 is 20mmHg?

A. 0mmHg
B. 17mmHg
C. 27mmHg
D. 30mmHg
E. ?

Which is true (repeat regarding dissolved O2 in plasma)?

A) 6mL/100mL with 3atm of air
B) 6mL/100mL with 3atm of 100% O2
C) ?
D) ?
E) ?

When would the pulmonary capillary (didn't say end-capillary) pO2 be substantially different to the alveolar pO2?

A) increased alveolar wall thickness
B) perfusion limitation
C) increased venous admixture
D) ?
E) ?

RE72 The respiratory exchange ratio:

A. is the same as the respiratory quotient
B. is always measured at rest
C. decreases during severe exercise
D. increases when repaying an oxygen debt
E. ?


  • (A) - Incorrect => "Not to be confused"
  • (B) - Incorrect - This is metabolic rate - R can be measured at any instant in time and does not require equilibrium to have been reached
  • (C) - Incorrect - Increases during severe exercise as CO2 increases - can rise to 2
  • (D) - Increases - Decreases whilst repaying oxygen debt - can fall to 0.5

Hence E must have been something correct or others remembered differently

A normal person breathing room air has a A-a gradient of 50mmHg (repeat), what could this be due to?

A. hypoventilation
B. venous admixture
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

RE41 Oxygen toxicity

A. CNS affected only if significantly above 760mmHg of PiO2
B. CNS and RS affected at 760mmHg PiO2 for 24 hours
C. RS affected at FiO2 30% and 1atm for 48hours
D. mediated by superoxide dismutase
E. involves lipid peroxidation

CO2 is highest in which sample (repeat):

A. alveolar dead space
B. mixed expired gas
C. ideal alveolar gas
D. pulmonary end-capillary blood
E. mixed venous blood

Which would increase carbamino-Hb formation?

A) decreased pH
B) increased carbonic anhydrase
C) decreased carbonic anhydrase
D) decreased pO2
E) ?

CVS physiology

Mixed venous oxygen tension when breathing 100% oxygen

A) 50mmHg
B) 70mmHg
C) 85mmHg
D) 100mmHg
E) 650mmHg

Answer A. Reference Nunn's Ed 6 p349

The kidney has

A) less blood flow per 100g than the heart
B) greater AV extraction than the heart
C) flow is related to sodium reabsorption
D) renal blood flow is measured by inulin

The vasomotor centre in the medulla is (new)

A. Depressed by local hypoxia
B. Stimulated by afferents from skeletal muscle
C. Stimulated by carotid sinus baroreceptors
D. Inhibited by aortic body stimulation
E. Stimulated by cardiopulmonary baroreceptors

The A-V difference in terms of mLO2/100g/min from greatest to smallest:

A. ??
B. ??
C. ??
D. heart muscle > liver > skin > kidney
E. heart muscle > liver > kidney > skin

The vasomotor centre (? repeat):

A. is depressed by local hypoxia
B. is stimulated by stimulation of the carotid sinus
C. is stimulated by stimulation of cardiopulmonary baroreceptors
D. ?
E. ?

Arterial baroreceptors:

A. located at the beginning of the external carotid artery
B. respond to pressure rather than stretch
C. stimulate GABA-ergic inhibitory interneurons
D. send afferents to the C1 area of the medula
E. ?

What happens directly after moving from supine to erect?

A. increased SVR
B. ?
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

When does the c wave occur in the JVP/CVP?

A. during atrial systole
B. just prior to atrial systole
C. during inspiration
D. during ventricular systole
E. ?

Which of the following would NOT cause an increase in pulse pressure?

A. decreased diastolic pressure
B. increased aortic compliance
C. increased SV
D. decreased TPR
E. decreased rate of ventricular ejection (pretty sure this was the exact wording)

Stimulation of carotid sinus sometimes ceases an SVT because:

A. decreases sympathetic output to SA node
B. increases vagal output to SA node
C. decreases sympathetic output to AV node
D. increases vagal output to AV node
E. ?

In a normal adult standing still, the pressure in the ankle vein would be:

A. 20mmHg
B. 30mmHg
C. 60mmHg
D. 90mmHg
E. 150mmHg

Answer D. Reference Ganong Ed 21 pg 633

Venous return:

A. Dependant on MSFP

B. Increased/decreased by inspiration

Renal physiology

The following is associated with a decrease in renin secretion

A. vasopressin
B. angiotensin II
C. oxytocin
D. SNS activity on kidney

Why can't urea be used to measure GFR?

A) it is actively reabsorbed in PCT
B) it is actively secreted in LoH
C) its concentration (didn't say where) is under control of ADH
D) ?
E) ?

Tubuloglomerular balance means:

A) proportionate reabsorption of filtered load

B) osmolality of filtrate and plasma is the same

C) ?

D) ?

E) none of the above

Renal oxygen consumption:

A. best correlates with Na/K-ATPase activity

B. is greater than the ??heart

C. ?

D. ?

E. ?

GI physiology

The following cause an increase in pH in the duodenum

A. gastrin releasing peptide

B. secretin


D. gastrin

E. histamine

Repeat question from GI09 [Jul99] [Feb00] [Apr01]:

  • Firstly (D) and (E) are obviously wrong
  • (A) GRP releases gastrin which stimulates HCl release from parietal cells -> decrease in duodenal pH
  • (C) Potentiates (B)
  • (B) Secretin is probably the best answer

Blood & immunology

Cross-matching involves comparing donor's

A) red cells with recipient's red cells
B) red cells with recipient's serum
C) serum with recipient's red cells
D) serum with recipient's serum
E) whole blood with recipient's whole blood

Adult Hb has which of the following?

A) 1 porphyrin ring and 1 FERROUS ion
B) 4 and 1
C) 4 and 4
D) 1 and 4
E) none of the above

Tissue macrophages (repeat):

A. absent in the liver and the lungs
B. activated by lymphocytes to kill bacteria
C. engluf bacteria and kill them with lymphokines
D. made in bone marrow and the circulate as megakaryocytes
E. ?

Endocrine & metabolic physiology

Posterior pituitary secretes arginine, vasopressin (this was the punctuation used!) and :

A) oxytocin
D) Prolactin
  • Answer (A)

What is the main reason why heat production can't increase during a general anaesthetic?

A. decreased skeletal muscle tone
B. decreased Na/K-ATPase activity
C. vasodilation
D. decreased ?hypothalamic ?pituitary responsiveness
E. ?

Which is not produced in the TCA cycle (repeat)?

D. H+
E. CO2
  • Answer (B) - this high energy molecule is used in the CAC and produces NADH


Repeat regarding CSF:

A. produced at 150mL/day
B) produced by choroid plexus and all the ventricles
C) ?
D) ?
E) total volume 350mL

Which has the greatest difference between plasma concentration and CSF concentration?

A) glucose
B) Na+
C) proteins
D) K+
E) Cl-

C fibres terminate in (repeat):

A. lamina I and II
B. lamina I and IV
C. lamina I and V
D. lamina II and III
E. lamina ??

Resting state permeability of Na:K in large axon is:

A. 100:1
B. 10:1
C. 1:1
D. 1:10
E. 1:100

Physiology of muscle & NMJ

What is the reason why net flow of fluid out of the intravascular space is so low in muscle?

A) increased lymphatic drainage with muscular contractions
B) interstitial protein concentration is high
C) Kf is low
D) ?
E. ?

Maternal, foetal & neonatal physiology

A foetus has lungs full of amniotic fluid in utero - what is the most important mechanism responsible for getting rid of it?

A) compression of foetal thorax going through birth canal

B) suctioning of airway after birth

C) it is reabsorbed into the lymphatics within 24 hours

D) it is coughed up within 72 hours

E) it is reabsorbed into the pulmonary circulation

? E . Reference Nunn's Ed 6 pg 232

I agree

  • Production of foetal lung fluid is reduced to 65% of maximal levels as labour approaches (cortisol and catecholamine-mediated)
  • 30% by compression during labout
  • 35% transported by amiloride-sensitive Na channels into pulmonary circulation
  • "Overall 20% is cleared by the pulmonary lymphatics" - this last bit doesn't add up but the wording implies it is the smallest proportion

In pregnancy, liver function changes such that:

A) serum cholesterol decreases

B) ALP increases

C) liver blood flow increases/decreases

D) ?

E) ?

Answer B. Reference Power and Kam Ed 2 pg 406

Clinical measurement

CM38 Raman scattering (repeat):

A) only occurs with ? monoatomic molecule

B) is a form of mass spectroscopy

C) ... the emitted photon has the same wavelength

D) can be used to measure the concentration of a gas

E) can only be used to measure one gas at a time

Clarke electrode (repeat):

A) requires 0.6amp current

B) uses platinum anode and Ag/AgCl cathode

C) can measure gas or blood samples

The PR interval in lead II is measured from:

A) start of P wave to start of R wave

B) start of P wave to end of R wave

C) start of P wave to start of Q wave

D) start of P wave to end of Q wave

E) end of P wave to start of Q wave

Which is true regarding the T wave?

A) it occurs 0.08seconds after the QRS

B) it is a depolarization currend heading towards the base of the heart

C) it occurs due to early repolarization of the ventricular SYSTEM

D) it is caused by ventricular depolarization

E) it occurs due to early repolarization of the ventricualr SURFACE

Answer (C) - although it is actually LATE repolarisation (the ST segment from the J point to T is the early repolarisation) Reference: Hlaing T, DiMino T, Kowey PR, Yan GX. ECG repolarization waves: their genesis and clinical implications. Ann Noninvasive Electrocardiol. 2005 Apr;10(2):211-23.

Regarding ECG normal calibration: (repeat)

A) 1mV per cm and 25mm per second

B) 0.5mV/cm and 25mm/s

C) 10mV/cm and 25mm/s

D) 1mV/cm and 50mm/s

E) ? and 50mm/s

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